A client is receiving opioid therapy. The nurse should be alert to the possibility that which could occur if the client receives an opioid agonist-antagonist?

Increased risk for CNS depression

Respiratory depression

Opioid withdrawal symptoms

Hypotension

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. An increased risk for CNS depression is not typically associated with opioid agonist-antagonists; instead, these medications may produce a ceiling effect on sedation compared to full agonists.

B. Respiratory depression is more commonly associated with full opioid agonists rather than agonist-antagonists. Agonist-antagonists can sometimes counteract respiratory depression caused by full agonists.

C. Opioid withdrawal symptoms can occur when a client who is dependent on full agonist opioids is given an agonist-antagonist, as these medications can displace the agonist from receptors, leading to withdrawal.

D. Hypotension is a possible side effect of opioids but is not a specific concern with the use of agonist-antagonists in the context of opioid therapy.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Giving the drug with food may delay absorption but does not affect the extent of the first-pass effect.

B. Administering the drug in small, frequent doses may help maintain therapeutic levels but will not significantly alter the first-pass effect.

C. Limiting protein intake could reduce drug binding to proteins, but this is not a standard approach for managing first-pass metabolism.

D. Administering the drug intravenously bypasses the gastrointestinal tract and liver, avoiding the first-pass effect, thereby increasing the amount of free drug available to body cells.

A. The first drugs used to treat infections date back to the 17th century. B. Fluoroquinolones interfere with the growth and development of the bacteria cell wall. C. Selective toxicity determines the appropriate drug dosage needed. D. Penicillin interferes with synthesis of the bacteria cell wall.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. While historical context is useful, the development of antimicrobials primarily began in the early 20th century, notably with penicillin discovered by Alexander Fleming in 1928.

B. This statement is incorrect; fluoroquinolones primarily inhibit bacterial DNA synthesis rather than directly affecting the cell wall.

C. Selective toxicity is a principle of antimicrobial action but does not directly explain how a specific antimicrobial works therapeutically.

D. Penicillin specifically interferes with the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall, leading to cell lysis and death of the bacteria, which is a fundamental mechanism of action for this antibiotic.

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A client is receiving opioid therapy. The nurse should be alert to the possibility that which could occur if the client receives an opioid agonist-antagonist?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client has been prescribed an oral drug that is known to have a high first-pass effect. Which measure has the potential to increase the amount of the free drug that is available to body cells?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is instructing a colleague on how an antimicrobial produces a therapeutic effect. What should be included in the nurse's teaching?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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