A client at 10-weeks gestation calls the clinic reporting a low-grade fever, moderate cramping, and heavy bright-red bleeding.
What advice should the nurse give the client?
Take acetaminophen.
Come in for an immediate evaluation.
Monitor the flow of the vaginal bleeding.
Rest in a supine position at home.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
While acetaminophen can help reduce fever, it does not address the underlying cause of the client’s symptoms. Moreover, self-medication without proper medical advice can potentially harm the pregnancy.
Choice B rationale
The client’s symptoms of low-grade fever, moderate cramping, and heavy bright-red bleeding could indicate a serious condition such as a miscarriage or an ectopic pregnancy. Therefore, immediate medical evaluation is necessary.
Choice C rationale
While monitoring the flow of vaginal bleeding can provide useful information, it does not address the immediate need for medical evaluation given the client’s symptoms.
Choice D rationale
Resting at home might not be the best advice given the severity of the client’s symptoms. Immediate medical evaluation is necessary.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Poor appetite can be a symptom of many neonatal conditions, but it's not the most common complication specifically associated with cephalhematoma.
Choice B rationale
Cephalhematomas are caused by the rupture of blood vessels between the skull and periosteum, resulting in a blood collection. The breakdown of red blood cells in this trapped blood can lead to the release of bilirubin, increasing an infant's risk for hyperbilirubinemia and jaundice.
Choice C rationale
Hypoglycemia is a potential concern in neonates but is not directly related to cephalhematoma.
Choice D rationale
While brain damage is a serious potential complication in cases of severe skull trauma, it's not typically associated with cephalhematoma alone. Cephalhematomas usually resolve on their own without long-term consequences.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Inserting a straight urinary catheter to drain the bladder is not the appropriate technique to evaluate fluid leakage in a pregnant woman. This procedure is invasive and can potentially introduce bacteria into the urinary tract, leading to infection.
Choice B rationale
Scanning the bladder for urinary retention is not the appropriate technique to evaluate fluid leakage in a pregnant woman. While ultrasound can be used to assess the amount of fluid in the bladder, it does not provide information about the nature of the fluid leakage.
Choice C rationale
Testing the fluid with a nitrazine strip is the appropriate technique to evaluate fluid leakage in a pregnant woman. Amniotic fluid has a higher pH than normal vaginal secretions and urine, and will turn a nitrazine strip blue. This test can help determine whether the fluid leakage is amniotic fluid, which could indicate rupture of membranes.
Choice D rationale
Palpating the suprapubic area for fetal head position is not the appropriate technique to evaluate fluid leakage in a pregnant woman. While this can provide information about the position of the fetus, it does not provide information about the nature of the fluid leakage.
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