A 75-year-old female patient presented to the office for an annual wellness visit. During the nurse's assessment, the patient explains she has been experiencing bilateral knee pain for the past eleven months. Based on the duration of the patient's symptoms, how would the nurse categorize the patient's pain?

Acute Pain

Intermittent Pain

Chronic Pain

Idiopathic Pain

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A reason:
Acute pain is typically sudden in onset and is usually the result of a specific injury or illness. It is characterized by its sharp quality and tends to last for a short duration, generally not longer than six months. Since the patient's knee pain has persisted for eleven months, it does not fall under the category of acute pain.
Choice B reason:
Intermittent pain is pain that comes and goes at intervals. Although the patient's pain could be intermittent, the classification based on duration would not be described as intermittent. This term refers more to the pattern of the pain rather than its chronicity or cause.
Choice C reason:
Chronic pain is defined as pain that persists for longer than six months, often continuing even after the injury or illness that caused it has healed. The patient's bilateral knee pain has been present for eleven months, which exceeds the six-month threshold, thus categorizing it as chronic pain.
Choice D reason:
Idiopathic pain refers to pain that arises without a clear cause. It is not categorized based on the duration of the pain but rather on the absence of an identifiable underlying reason. Since the patient's pain has a specific duration, it is not appropriate to classify it as idiopathic without further information regarding its cause.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A Reason:
Positioning the arm below waist level is not recommended when measuring blood pressure. It can result in an inaccurate reading, typically showing a higher blood pressure due to the effects of gravity on the blood column. The arm should be positioned at heart level for an accurate measurement.

Choice B Reason:
While palpating the radial artery to confirm a pulse is present is part of the overall assessment of circulation, it is not a necessary step immediately before measuring blood pressure. The focus should be on ensuring the client is in the correct position and is relaxed to avoid any factors that might artificially alter the blood pressure reading.

Choice C Reason:
Asking the client to sit quietly in a chair for 5 minutes is the correct procedure before measuring blood pressure. This allows the client's heart rate and blood pressure to stabilize, providing a more accurate measurement. Any activity or stress can temporarily raise blood pressure, so this quiet time is crucial.

Choice D Reason:
The arm selected for blood pressure measurement should not be covered with clothing. Clothing can constrict the blood pressure cuff and interfere with the accuracy of the reading. The cuff should be placed on bare skin to ensure it inflates and deflates correctly and that the stethoscope can accurately detect the sounds of the blood flow.

A. Refer the client for medical follow-up. B. Ask the client about a family history of cancer. C. Document the benign findings. D. Perform a random blood sugar test.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice a reason :
Referring the client for medical follow-up is the most appropriate action. Acanthosis Nigricans is often associated with insulin resistance and is a risk factor for diabetes mellitus. The client's symptoms of fatigue, thirst, and frequent urination are classic signs of diabetes. Therefore, a comprehensive medical evaluation is necessary to rule out diabetes or other underlying conditions that could be causing these symptoms.
Choice b reason
While Acanthosis Nigricans can sometimes be associated with malignancy, it is more commonly linked to insulin resistance and diabetes. The client's presenting symptoms are not typical of cancer but are indicative of diabetes. Therefore, while a family history of cancer is relevant to the client's overall health, it is not the immediate concern based on the current presentation.
Choice c reason
Documenting findings is an essential part of the nursing process; however, the presence of Acanthosis Nigricans, especially when coupled with symptoms of fatigue, thirst, and frequent urination, should not be considered benign without further investigation. These findings warrant further assessment to determine the underlying cause.
Choice d reason
Performing a random blood sugar test could be a part of the initial assessment; however, it should not replace a referral for a comprehensive medical evaluation. A random blood sugar test alone may not be sufficient to diagnose diabetes or determine the cause of the client's symptoms. A full medical follow-up will likely include blood sugar testing along with other diagnostic tests.

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client has arrived at the clinic for a routine physical examination. Prior to assessing the client's blood pressure, what should the nurse do?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A 45-year-old African-American client comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue, thirst, and frequent urination. During the physical exam, the nurse notices areas of linear hyperpigmentation around the neck and in the axillae (Acanthosis Nigricans). What would the nurse do next?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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