A 75-year-old client with a recent history of a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) presents with right hemiparesis. The nurse tests the deep tendon reflexes on the right side and elicits a brisk 4+ response. Which interpretation of this finding is accurate?

Absent or sluggish response consistent with a lower motor neuron lesion.

Flaccid paralysis.

Hyperactive response consistent with an upper motor neuron disorder.

A normal reflex

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A.   An absent or sluggish deep tendon reflex typically indicates a lower motor neuron lesion, which affects the peripheral nerves or spinal cord segments involved in reflex arc processing. Lower motor neuron lesions often result in reduced or absent reflexes, not brisk responses.
B.   Flaccid paralysis is characterized by a lack of muscle tone and reflexes, which is usually associated with lower motor neuron damage. A brisk 4+ reflex response does not indicate flaccid paralysis but rather heightened reflex activity.
C.   A brisk 4+ response indicates hyperactivity of the deep tendon reflexes, which is consistent with an upper motor neuron disorder. Upper motor neuron lesions, such as those resulting from a cerebrovascular accident (CVA), often lead to increased reflex responses due to disruption in the normal inhibitory signals from the brain.
D.   A normal reflex response is typically classified as 2+ on a scale of 0 to 4, where 2+ is considered average or expected. A 4+ response indicates hyperactivity, which is not normal but rather indicates increased reflexes, usually associated with upper motor neuron issues.

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Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"D"},"B":{"answers":"B"}}

Explanation

Wrist: Able to bend wrist back toward forearm

Flexion: When the wrist bends back toward the forearm, it is an example of flexion. Flexion decreases the angle between the wrist and the forearm.

Elbow: Only able to straighten joint 30 degrees

Extension: The ability to straighten the elbow is indicative of extension. In this case, the client is only able to straighten the elbow to 30 degrees, which reflects limited extension.

A. Firm mass palpated at bottom of left rib cage. B. Rebound tenderness with compression over right upper quadrant. C. Tip of spleen palpable when client is asked to forcefully exhale. D. Pain noted when palpating McBurney's point.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. A firm mass at the bottom of the left rib cage could indicate an enlarged spleen. Splenomegaly can result from various conditions such as infections, liver disease, or blood disorders. This finding is considered abnormal and warrants further evaluation.
B. Rebound tenderness in the right upper quadrant is used to assess for peritoneal irritation, often associated with conditions such as appendicitis. This finding is not specific to the spleen but rather indicates potential issues in the right side of the abdomen, and is not directly related to palpation of the spleen.
C. The spleen is normally not palpable in most people. If the tip of the spleen is palpable during deep palpation or when the client is asked to exhale forcefully, it may indicate mild splenomegaly. While this finding might suggest an abnormality, it is less alarming than a firm, consistently palpable mass.
D. McBurney’s point is located in the right lower quadrant and is used to assess for appendicitis. Pain at McBurney’s point is related to appendiceal inflammation and is not specific to the spleen. This finding does not provide information about the spleen but rather about potential appendiceal pathology.

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A 75-year-old client with a recent history of a cerebrovascular accident (CVA) presents with right hemiparesis. The nurse tests the deep tendon reflexes on the right side and elicits a brisk 4+ response. Which interpretation of this finding is accurate?

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Patient Data Exhibits

Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"D"},"B":{"answers":"B"}}

Explanation

The nurse examines a client's abdomen. Which finding indicates an abnormal response when palpating the spleen?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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