A 50-year-old male patient presents with facial rounding, central obesity, and purple striae on the abdomen. Laboratory results show high levels of ACTH. What is the most likely underlying cause of his condition?

Adrenal insufficiency.

Pheochromocytoma.

Cushing Disease.

Hyperthyroidism.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

Choice A Reason:

Adrenal insufficiency, also known as Addison’s disease, is characterized by insufficient production of cortisol and aldosterone by the adrenal glands. Symptoms typically include fatigue, weight loss, low blood pressure, and hyperpigmentation of the skin. High levels of ACTH are not associated with adrenal insufficiency; instead, ACTH levels are usually elevated in response to low cortisol levels.

Choice B Reason:

Pheochromocytoma is a rare tumor of the adrenal gland that produces excess catecholamines, leading to symptoms such as hypertension, palpitations, and headaches. It does not cause high levels of ACTH or the physical manifestations described in the patient, such as facial rounding and purple striae.

Choice C Reason:

Cushing Disease is caused by a pituitary adenoma that secretes excess adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), leading to overproduction of cortisol by the adrenal glands. This results in symptoms such as facial rounding (moon face), central obesity, purple striae on the abdomen, and high levels of ACTH. These clinical features align with the patient’s presentation, making Cushing Disease the most likely underlying cause.

Choice D Reason:

Hyperthyroidism is characterized by excessive production of thyroid hormones, leading to symptoms such as weight loss, heat intolerance, palpitations, and tremors. It does not cause high levels of ACTH or the specific physical changes seen in Cushing Disease.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A Reason:

Administering intravenous acetazolamide is a critical intervention for acute narrow-angle glaucoma. Acetazolamide is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor that reduces the production of aqueous humor, thereby lowering intraocular pressure (IOP) quickly. Reducing IOP is essential to prevent optic nerve damage and preserve vision. Normal IOP ranges from 10 to 21 mmHg, and in acute narrow-angle glaucoma, it can exceed 30 mmHg. Rapid reduction of IOP is crucial to alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications.

Choice B Reason:

Applying warm compresses to the affected eye is not an appropriate intervention for acute narrow-angle glaucoma. Warm compresses may provide temporary relief for some eye conditions, but they do not address the underlying issue of elevated intraocular pressure. In fact, warm compresses can potentially increase blood flow to the eye, which might exacerbate the condition.

Choice C Reason:

Encouraging the patient to drink plenty of fluids to stay hydrated is generally good advice for overall health, but it is not a prioritized intervention for acute narrow-angle glaucoma. Hydration does not directly impact intraocular pressure or alleviate the acute symptoms of glaucoma. The primary focus should be on reducing IOP to prevent optic nerve damage.

Choice D Reason:

Administering a mydriatic agent to dilate the pupil is contraindicated in acute narrow-angle glaucoma. Mydriatic agents can worsen the condition by further narrowing the anterior chamber angle, increasing intraocular pressure, and potentially causing more damage to the optic nerve. It is crucial to avoid pupil dilation in this scenario.

A. Advise the patient to increase their screen time to exercise their eye muscles. B. Encourage the patient to quit smoking to slow the progression of the disease. C. Suggest the patient avoid all physical activities to prevent further eye damage. D. Inform the patient to reduce their water intake to prevent fluid accumulation in the eyes.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A Reason:

Advising the patient to increase their screen time to exercise their eye muscles is not appropriate for managing macular degeneration. Increased screen time can cause eye strain and does not benefit the condition. Instead, patients should be encouraged to engage in activities that do not exacerbate eye strain.

Choice B Reason:

Encouraging the patient to quit smoking is a crucial intervention for managing macular degeneration. Smoking is a significant risk factor for the progression of macular degeneration. Quitting smoking can help slow the progression of the disease and improve overall eye health. This intervention addresses a modifiable risk factor and can have a positive impact on the patient’s condition.

Choice C Reason:

Suggesting the patient avoid all physical activities to prevent further eye damage is not necessary for managing macular degeneration. Physical activity is important for overall health and does not directly impact the progression of macular degeneration. Patients should be encouraged to maintain a healthy lifestyle, including regular physical activity.

Choice D Reason:

Informing the patient to reduce their water intake to prevent fluid accumulation in the eyes is not relevant for managing macular degeneration. Adequate hydration is important for overall health, and there is no evidence to suggest that reducing water intake will benefit patients with macular degeneration. This advice could potentially lead to dehydration and other health issues.

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A 50-year-old male patient presents with facial rounding, central obesity, and purple striae on the abdomen. Laboratory results show high levels of ACTH. What is the most likely underlying cause of his condition?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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