In pea plants, green pod color (G) is dominant to yellow pod color (g). A cross was done between a plant with green pods and a plant with yellow pods. Of the resulting offspring, 50% had green pods and 50% had yellow pods. Which of the following were the genotypes of both parent plants?
Gg x gg
GG x gg
Gg x Gg
gg x gg
Correct Answer : A
A. This combination explains the observed offspring ratio. One parent is heterozygous for green pods (Gg), possessing one dominant allele for green pods and one recessive allele for yellow pods. The other parent is homozygous recessive (gg), with both alleles coding for yellow pods. When these plants are crossed, the offspring have a 50% chance of inheriting the G allele from the heterozygous parent and a 50% chance of inheriting two g alleles, one from each parent, resulting in the observed 50/50 split of green and yellow pods.
B. This pairing would result in all offspring having green pods because the GG parent would pass on the dominant green allele to all offspring, and the gg parent can only contribute the recessive yellow allele.
C. This cross would typically result in a 3:1 ratio of green to yellow podded offspring, not the 1:1 ratio observed.
D. This cross would result in 100% yellow podded offspring since both parents would only be able to pass on the recessive yellow allele.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Uracil is a nucleotide that is unique to RNA. It is one of the four nitrogenous bases found in RNA molecules and replaces thymine, which is found in DNA. In RNA, uracil binds with adenine during the formation of RNA strands. Its structure is similar to that of thymine, but it lacks a methyl group on the carbon at position 5.
B. Thymine, on the other hand, is found only in DNA. It is one of the four nucleobases in the nucleic acid of DNA that are represented by the letters G–C–A–T. Thymine is the DNA counterpart of uracil and pairs with adenine through two hydrogen bonds. In the DNA double helix, thymine helps to stabilize the nucleic acid structures with its pairing with adenine.
C. Guanine is a nucleotide that is found in both DNA and RNA. It is one of the five standard nucleobases and pairs with cytosine with three hydrogen bonds. Guanine is essential for the structure of both DNA and RNA due to its complementary pairing, which helps to maintain the integrity of the genetic information.
D. Adenine is also a nucleotide present in both DNA and RNA. It is one of the two purine nucleobases used in forming nucleotides of the nucleic acids. In DNA, adenine binds to thymine with two hydrogen bonds to assist in stabilizing the nucleic acid structures. In RNA, adenine binds to uracil instead.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. This plate represents good antibiotic activity against Escherichia.
B. This is the plate that represents the highest number of bacteria. The bacteria that grow on this plate are the most resistant to the antibiotic because they can survive in a high concentration of the substance. In the other plates, the antibiotic inhibits the growth of the bacteria to a greater or lesser extent, depending on their sensitivity.
C. This plate represents partial antibiotic activity against Escherichia.
D. This represents no activity that may be due to inappropriate media.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Correct Choice: D: A-1, Z-1
Choice D: A−1,Z−1
- Explanation: This is the correct description of what happens when a proton is emitted:
- The atomic number ZZZ decreases by 1 (because a proton is lost).
- The atomic mass AAA decreases by 1 (because the proton is no longer contributing to the mass).
Incorrect Choice:
Choice A: A+1,Z+1
- Explanation: This suggests that both the atomic mass and atomic number increase, which would happen if a proton were added to the nucleus. This does not describe the emission of a proton, so it’s incorrect.
Choice B: A−1,Z+1
- Explanation: This suggests that the atomic mass decreases by 1, but the atomic number increases. However, when a proton is emitted, the atomic number should decrease, so this is also incorrect.
Choice C: A+1,Z−1
- Explanation: This suggests that the atomic mass increases while the atomic number decreases. Emitting a proton does not increase the atomic mass, so this choice is incorrect.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. The fallopian tubes are not the source of menstrual blood and tissue. They are narrow tubes that connect the ovaries to the uterus and serve as the pathway for the egg (ovum) to travel during ovulation.
B. The uterine wall, specifically the inner lining, is the source of the blood and mucosal tissue shed during menstruation. Each month, the endometrium thickens in preparation for a potential pregnancy. If fertilization does not occur, this thickened lining is shed, resulting in menstrual bleeding.
C. The vagina, is the exit route for the menstrual flow but is not the source of the blood and tissue.
D. The ovaries, which produce eggs and hormones like estrogen and progesterone, are also not the source of menstrual blood and tissue. They are involved in the menstrual cycle by triggering the thickening of the endometrium, but the tissue itself originates from the uterine wall.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. The nucleus is the command center of a eukaryotic cell, containing most of the cell's genetic material and regulating gene expression to control cell growth, division, and differentiation.
B. Lysosomes are membrane-bound organelles that contain enzymes for digesting macromolecules, old cell parts, and foreign invaders, acting as the waste disposal system of the cell.
C. Mitochondria are known as the powerhouses of the cell. They are responsible for producing adenosine triphosphate (ATP), the cell's main energy-carrying molecule, through a process called cellular respiration.
D. Centrioles are cylindrical structures that are involved in the organization of microtubules during cell division, playing a crucial role in the formation of the spindle fibers that separate chromosomes during mitosis and meiosis.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Blood pumped from the heart first enters arterioles that then merge to form arteries that deliver blood to the organ. This statement is incorrect because the flow of blood from the heart starts in the arteries, not arterioles, and arterioles do not merge to form arteries but rather are smaller branches of arteries.
B. Blood pumped from the heart first enters arteries that then narrow to form veins that deliver blood to the organ. This statement is incorrect as veins do not deliver blood to organs; veins carry blood back to the heart.
C. Blood pumped from the heart first enters arteries that then narrow to form arterioles that deliver blood to capillaries of the organ. This statement is correct. The blood leaves the heart through the arteries, which branch into smaller arterioles. The arterioles further branch into capillaries, where the exchange of gases and nutrients occurs within the tissues of the organ.
D. Blood pumped from the heart first enters veins that then narrow to form venules that deliver blood to arteries of the organ. This statement is incorrect because veins and venules are part of the return pathway to the heart, not the outbound pathway to the organs, and they do not deliver blood to arteries.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. A pivot joint allows for rotational movement around a single axis. An example of a pivot joint is the atlantoaxial joint in the neck, which allows for the rotation of the head.
B. A hinge joint permits movement in one plane, much like the opening and closing of a door.
C. The elbow and knee joints are classic examples of hinge joints, allowing for flexion and extension.
D. Gliding joints, also known as plane joints, allow for sliding movements in multiple directions within a plane. These are found in areas like the carpals of the wrist, where small bones slide against each other to allow for a range of movements.
The hip joint is a ball-and-socket joint, which is characterized by a spherical end of one bone fitting into a cup-like depression of another bone. This structure allows for a wide range of motion, including flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, and rotation. The hip joint, specifically, is formed by the articulation of the head of the femur and the acetabulum of the pelvis. It is designed for stability and weight-bearing, making it one of the most stable joints in the human body. This type of joint is also found in the shoulder, where the humerus fits into the glenoid fossa of the scapula.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Parathyroid hormone (PTH) is secreted by the parathyroid glands and plays a critical role in regulating calcium levels in the blood. It acts on bones, kidneys, and the intestine to increase blood calcium levels when they are low. In the bones, PTH stimulates osteoclasts, which break down bone tissue, releasing calcium into the bloodstream. In the kidneys, it increases the reabsorption of calcium, preventing its loss through urine. Additionally, PTH influences the intestines to absorb more calcium from the food we eat.
B. Norepinephrine is a hormone and neurotransmitter involved in the body's fight or flight response. It does not regulate blood calcium levels but rather affects heart rate, blood pressure, and blood glucose levels.
C. Growth hormone, produced by the pituitary gland, stimulates growth in children and adolescents and helps to maintain muscle mass and bone density in adults. It does not directly regulate calcium levels in the blood.
D. Melatonin is a hormone secreted by the pineal gland, primarily influencing sleep-wake cycles and circadian rhythms. It does not have a role in regulating blood calcium levels.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Both endocrine and exocrine glands produce secretions that affect target cells, but the way they deliver these secretions to the target cells is different. Endocrine glands release hormones directly into the bloodstream, which then travel to the target cells, while exocrine glands secrete their products into ducts that lead directly to the target areas.
B. Nerve innervation refers to the supply of nerves to a particular part of the body or organ.
While nerve innervation can influence the activity of glands, it is not the primary distinguishing feature between endocrine and exocrine glands.
C. The biochemical nature of the secretions can vary widely among different glands, but this is not the main characteristic that differentiates endocrine from exocrine glands. Both can produce a variety of biochemical substances, including enzymes, hormones, and other compounds.
D. This is the key difference between endocrine and exocrine glands. Endocrine glands are ductless and release their hormones directly into the bloodstream, allowing them to be transported throughout the body. In contrast, exocrine glands have ducts through which they release their secretions to the surface of an organ or tissue, or to the outside of the body.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Skeletal muscles are not autorhythmic; this term refers to the ability to generate a rhythmical electrical impulse without the need for nervous stimulation, which is a characteristic of cardiac muscles.
B. Cardiac muscles contain intercalated discs, which are unique structural formations that allow for the rapid transmission of electrical impulses between cardiac cells. This feature is not found in skeletal muscles, which are composed of individual muscle fibers that are controlled voluntarily.
C. Cardiac muscles are involuntary, meaning they function without conscious control, which is necessary for the continuous pumping action of the heart. In contrast, skeletal muscles are under voluntary control, allowing for movement of the body in response to conscious decisions.
D. Skeletal muscles are not found in the viscera; they are attached to bones and are responsible for body movements. Cardiac muscles, on the other hand, are located in the heart, which is not in the cranium but in the thoracic cavity. The term 'viscera' refers to the internal organs in the main cavities of the body, especially those in the abdomen, not the cranium.
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