When preparing a client for an emergency cesarean birth with no time to administer spinal anesthesia, what is the greatest risk of administering general anesthesia to the client?
Respiratory depression.
Aspiration of stomach contents.
Uterine relaxation.
Inadequate muscle relaxation.
The Correct Answer is B
Answer and explanation
The correct answer is B. Aspiration of stomach contents.
Choice A rationale:
Respiratory depression is a potential risk of general anesthesia, but it is not the greatest risk in this scenario.
It is usually well-managed by the anesthesiologist during surgery.
They will closely monitor the patient's respiratory status and adjust the level of anesthesia as needed to maintain adequate breathing.
If respiratory depression does occur, it can be quickly reversed with medications.
Choice B rationale:
Aspiration of stomach contents is the most serious risk of general anesthesia in pregnant women.
This is because pregnancy causes a number of changes in the gastrointestinal system that increase the risk of aspiration:
The growing uterus puts pressure on the stomach, which can cause stomach contents to reflux into the esophagus.
Pregnancy hormones can relax the esophageal sphincter, which is the muscle that normally prevents food and stomach acid from coming back up the esophagus.
Labor can further delay gastric emptying, leading to a higher volume of stomach contents.
If stomach contents are aspirated into the lungs, it can cause a serious and potentially fatal condition called aspiration pneumonia.
It is important to note that aspiration can occur even if a woman has been fasting before surgery.
This is because the stomach never completely empties, and there is always some risk of reflux.
Choice C rationale:
Uterine relaxation is a potential side effect of some general anesthetic agents, but it is not a major risk in this scenario.
The anesthesiologist will choose an anesthetic agent that is less likely to cause uterine relaxation.
Additionally, they will closely monitor the patient's uterine tone and can administer medications to stimulate the uterus if necessary.
Choice D rationale:
Inadequate muscle relaxation is not a major risk of general anesthesia in this scenario.
The anesthesiologist will ensure that the patient's muscles are adequately relaxed to facilitate surgery.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is C. The test results are normal.
Choice A rationale:
A biophysical profile (BPP) score of 8 does not necessarily indicate a need for immediate cesarean delivery.
Cesarean delivery is typically reserved for cases where there is a clear and urgent risk to the health of the mother or fetus, such as severe fetal distress or placental abruption.
A score of 8, while not the highest possible score, is still within the normal range and does not, by itself, constitute a reason for immediate surgical intervention.
Choice B rationale:
Additional tests may be considered in certain cases, such as when the BPP score is borderline or when there are other risk factors present.
However, a score of 8 is generally considered reassuring and does not typically warrant further testing.
It's essential to evaluate the BPP score in the context of the overall clinical picture, including the gestational age, maternal health, and fetal history.
Choice D rationale:
While an obstetric specialist may review the BPP results and discuss delivery options with the patient, this is not typically done within a week for a score of 8.
A score of 8 indicates reassuring fetal well-being, and there is usually no need for such urgent consultation or decision-making.
The timing of delivery discussions would depend on the overall clinical situation and the patient's individual preferences.
Choice C rationale:
A BPP score of 8 is considered normal.
It suggests that the fetus is well-oxygenated and has normal heart rate, breathing movements, muscle tone, and amniotic fluid levels.
This score does not raise immediate concerns about fetal well-being and does not typically require any immediate interventions.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
A positive contraction stress test (CST) indicates that the fetal heart rate decelerates late in response to uterine contractions, suggesting potential uteroplacental insufficiency. However, the scenario does not describe a CST being performed, as it does not mention any assessment of uterine contractions or their relationship to fetal heart rate changes.
Choice C rationale:
A negative contraction stress test (CST) would demonstrate no late decelerations in response to contractions, suggesting adequate placental function. However, as mentioned earlier, a CST is not the test being performed in this scenario.
Choice D rationale:
A non-reactive nonstress test (NST) means that there were not enough fetal heart rate accelerations (at least 2, each lasting at least 15 seconds and peaking at least 15 beats above baseline) within a 20-minute period. This finding sometimes warrants further evaluation of fetal well-being. However, the scenario clearly states that 3 accelerations meeting the criteria for reactivity were observed.
Choice B rationale:
A reactive nonstress test (NST) is considered reassuring and indicates that the fetal heart rate is responding appropriately to fetal movement, suggesting that the fetus is likely healthy and well-oxygenated. The presence of 3 accelerations meeting the criteria for reactivity within a 20-minute period is the hallmark of a reactive NST.
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