When evaluating clients in the urgent care center, which client should be seen first? The client:.
with a large laceration on the left scapula.
with a compound fracture of the right tibia.
who is unable to breastfeed her 4 week old.
with a labored respiratory rate of 28.
The Correct Answer is D
The client with a labored respiratory rate of 28 should be seen first because this indicates respiratory distress, which is a life-threatening condition that requires immediate intervention. Respiratory rate is one of the vital signs that are used to assess the severity of a patient’s condition and to triage them accordingly. A normal respiratory rate for an adult is 12 to 20 breaths per minute.
Choice A is wrong because a large laceration on the left scapula is not as urgent as respiratory distress.
A laceration is a wound that involves a cut or tear in the skin, which may cause bleeding, pain, and infection. However, it can be managed with wound care and suturing in the urgent care center.
Choice B is wrong because a compound fracture of the right tibia is not as urgent as respiratory distress.
A compound fracture is a fracture that breaks through the skin, which may cause bleeding, pain, infection, and nerve or blood vessel damage. However, it can be stabilized with splinting and dressing in the urgent care center before transferring to a hospital for further treatment.
Choice C is wrong because being unable to breastfeed a 4 week old is not as urgent as respiratory distress.
Breastfeeding difficulties may be caused by various factors, such as poor latch, low milk supply, sore nipples, or mastitis. However, they can be managed with education, support, and medication in the urgent care center.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The directive takes effect only if the client is incapable of personally making health care decisions. This statement demonstrates an understanding of health care proxy and care because it reflects the definition of a health care proxy as a person who can make health care decisions for the client only when the client is unable to communicate these themselves.
Choice A is wrong because the daughter does not have the authority to make all of the client’s health care decisions, only those that the client has not specified in advance or that are not covered by the living will.
Choice B is wrong because no extraordinary means, such as cardiopulmonary resuscitation, will be initiated only if the client has expressed this preference in a living will or a do-not-resuscitate order.
Choice D is wrong because the closest relative, such as the spouse, does not have to be consulted before the daughter in making health care decisions, unless the client has designated them as an alternate proxy.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This is because acute pain is the most urgent and life-threatening problem for a client with myocardial infarction.
Acute pain indicates ongoing ischemia and tissue damage, which can lead to complications such as heart failure, arrhythmias, or cardiogenic shock. Therefore, relieving pain is the priority nursing diagnosis.
Choice A. Anxiety is wrong because anxiety is not a specific symptom of myocardial infarction and anxiety is due to the discomfort that happens due to activation of the sympathetic pathway which is good for survival.
Choice C. Knowledge deficit is wrong because knowledge deficit is not an immediate problem for a client with myocardial infarction.
Knowledge deficit can be addressed after the acute phase of the condition is over and the client is stable.
Choice D. Nausea and vomiting are wrong because nausea and vomiting are common symptoms of myocardial infarction, but they are not as urgent and life-threatening as acute pain.
Nausea and vomiting can be treated with antiemetics and fluids, but they do not affect the outcome of the condition as much as pain does.
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