What test results would indicate hyperthyroidism? Select all that apply.
Low T4 levels.
High T4 levels.
Low TSH levels.
High TSH levels.
Correct Answer : B,C
Choice A reason: Low T4 levels do not indicate hyperthyroidism. In fact, low levels of T4 are typically associated with hypothyroidism, a condition in which the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormones.
Choice B reason: High T4 levels are indicative of hyperthyroidism. In hyperthyroidism, the thyroid gland is overactive and produces excessive amounts of thyroid hormone (T4), leading to elevated T4 levels in the blood.
Choice C reason: Low TSH levels are also indicative of hyperthyroidism. The pituitary gland secretes TSH to regulate thyroid hormone production. When thyroid hormone levels are high, as in hyperthyroidism, the pituitary gland reduces TSH secretion, resulting in low TSH levels.
Choice D reason: High TSH levels are not associated with hyperthyroidism. Elevated TSH levels are more commonly seen in hypothyroidism, where the thyroid gland is underactive, and the pituitary gland compensates by increasing TSH production to stimulate the thyroid gland.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: 3% Normal Saline (3% NaCl) is not appropriate for treating acute Diabetes insipidus because it is hypertonic and can exacerbate dehydration, which is a primary concern in DI.
Choice B reason: Dextrose 5% in water (D5W) is appropriate for treating acute Diabetes insipidus as it provides free water without electrolytes, helping to correct the water deficit without causing electrolyte imbalances.
Choice C reason: Lactated Ringer's (LR) is not suitable for treating acute Diabetes insipidus because it contains electrolytes that can worsen the electrolyte imbalance in DI patients.
Choice D reason: Normal Saline (0.9% NaCl) can be used for treating acute Diabetes insipidus but it is not the most appropriate choice as it does not provide free water, which is needed to address the water deficit in DI patients.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Asking the HCP to change the medication from heparin to enoxaparin (Lovenox) would not be the most appropriate action for a patient diagnosed with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Enoxaparin, like heparin, is a low molecular weight heparin and can still cause HIT. Therefore, this action does not address the immediate need to stop the heparin infusion to prevent further reduction in platelet levels and manage the HIT effectively.
Choice B reason: Discontinuing the heparin infusion is the correct action for a nurse to take first when a patient is diagnosed with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). The primary step in managing HIT is to stop all forms of heparin to prevent further platelet activation and decrease in platelet count. Discontinuing heparin helps to prevent thromboembolic complications associated with HIT. Once heparin is discontinued, the healthcare provider can evaluate alternative anticoagulation therapies that do not cross-react with heparin, such as direct thrombin inhibitors.
Choice C reason: Administering prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) is not appropriate at this stage for a patient diagnosed with heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Warfarin can initially lead to a hypercoagulable state, which increases the risk of thrombosis in patients with HIT. The immediate priority is to discontinue heparin, and warfarin should only be considered once platelet counts have recovered and the acute HIT has been managed.
Choice D reason: Preparing for platelet transfusion is not the first action to take for managing heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT). Platelet transfusions are generally avoided in HIT as they can potentially worsen the thrombotic risk. The primary action should be to discontinue heparin and consider alternative anticoagulation therapies. Platelet transfusions may be reserved for cases where there is significant bleeding or invasive procedures are planned.
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