The vital signs for a client with heart failure (HF), who is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU), are a temperature of 98.6° F (37°C), heart rate 125 beats/minute, respirations 22 breaths/minute, and blood pressure 140/50 mm Hg. The nurse determines the client's central venous pressure (CVP) and pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) are elevated. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Initiate an IV bolus of 0.9% normal saline 500 mL.

Titrate IV dopamine at 8 mcg/kg/minute.

Administer furosemide 40 mg IV push (IVP).

Encourage a liberal PO fluid intake.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Initiate an IV bolus of 0.9% normal saline 500 mL. The client already has elevated CVP and PAWP, which indicate fluid overload and poor cardiac function. Giving a fluid bolus would worsen pulmonary congestion, edema, and respiratory distress. Fluid restriction, rather than additional IV fluids, is usually necessary in decompensated heart failure.
B. Titrate IV dopamine at 8 mcg/kg/minute. Dopamine is a vasopressor and inotropic agent that increases blood pressure and cardiac output. However, the client has an elevated blood pressure (140/50 mm Hg) and signs of fluid overload, making dopamine unnecessary. Increasing contractility could further stress the failing heart and worsen congestion.
C. Administer furosemide 40 mg IV push (IVP). Furosemide (a loop diuretic) is the best intervention for fluid overload in heart failure. Elevated CVP and PAWP suggest pulmonary congestion and excess intravascular volume, which furosemide helps relieve by reducing preload and promoting diuresis. This intervention improves breathing, reduces blood pressure, and decreases cardiac workload.
D. Encourage a liberal PO fluid intake. Clients with heart failure often require fluid restriction to prevent worsening edema and pulmonary congestion. Encouraging excessive oral fluid intake would worsen fluid overload and should be avoided.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Notify healthcare provider (HCP) of the symptoms and administer a PRN pain medication. While notifying the HCP is necessary, administering pain medication does not address the underlying cause of the client’s acute chest pain and difficulty breathing. These symptoms suggest a possible pulmonary embolism (PE), a life-threatening complication after orthopedic surgery. Immediate supportive interventions should be initiated before notifying the provider.
B. Increase the client's IV flow rate and start low-flow oxygen. The client is experiencing acute respiratory distress, which could indicate a pulmonary embolism (PE), a fat embolism, or another postoperative complication. Providing oxygen helps improve oxygenation and reduce hypoxia, while increasing the IV flow rate helps maintain perfusion and prevent shock. These immediate interventions support vital functions while preparing for further medical management.
C. Position the client on the left side while immobilizing the affected leg. This position is used in air embolism management, not pulmonary embolism. In suspected PE, the priority is to optimize oxygenation and circulation rather than repositioning. The affected leg should be immobilized to prevent further embolization, but this is not the first priority.
D. Take the client's vital signs and auscultate all lung sounds. While assessing the client’s vital signs and lung sounds is important, intervention should not be delayed. The priority is to support oxygenation and circulation immediately, as PE can rapidly lead to hypoxia, hemodynamic instability, or cardiac arrest. Assessment should be done concurrently with emergency interventions.

A. Determine patellar tendon reflex response. B. Check the urinary bladder for distention. C. Ask the client to grasp an object or form a fist. D. Apply resistance while the client lifts the legs.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Determine patellar tendon reflex response. The patellar reflex (knee jerk) assesses function of the L2-L4 spinal nerves, which are below the level of injury (C8-T1) and do not provide information about upper extremity function. While deep tendon reflexes are important, they do not help assess function at the suspected injury level.
B. Check the urinary bladder for distention. Bladder function is controlled by the sacral spinal nerves (S2-S4), which are much lower than the injury level. While bladder dysfunction is common in spinal cord injuries, it does not assess C8-T1 nerve function specifically.
C. Ask the client to grasp an object or form a fist. The C8 and T1 spinal nerves control hand and finger movements, including grip strength. Testing the client’s ability to grasp an object or form a fist helps assess fine motor function and nerve integrity at the injury level. This is the most appropriate way to determine function in the lower cervical and upper thoracic spinal nerves.
D. Apply resistance while the client lifts the legs. Leg movement is controlled by the lumbar and sacral spinal nerves (L2-S2), which are below the injury level. Assessing leg strength does not provide relevant information about C8-T1 function.

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Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Twelve hours following orthopedic surgery on the right leg, the client begins to have acute chest pain and difficulty breathing. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client with a gunshot wound is brought to the emergency department (ED) with a bullet entry at the spinal level of C8 and T1.The client is able to move the upper arms. To further assess the client's spinal nerve function, which action should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A client is brought to the emergency department (ED) following a motor vehicle collision with blunt trauma to the chest. Which finding should the nurse report immediately to the healthcare provider (HCP)?

A client who was involved in a motor vehicle collision while riding a motorcycle without wearing a helmet, is brought the emergency department (ED) by emergency medical services (EMS). Which assessment should the nurse obtain first?

The nurse assesses the telemetry monitor of a client who is 24 hours postoperative from having a permanent pacemaker insertion. The nurse observes that a pacemaker spike is present before each QRS complex in lead II of the electrocardiogram (ECG). Which intervention should the nurse implement?

The nurse is collecting a blood sample for a mixed venous oxygen saturation (SVO2) level from the distal lumen of a pulmonary artery (PA) catheter of a client in cardiogenic shock. Which action should the nurse implement?

The nurse is administering low dose dopamine to a client who is in septic shock. Which physiologic parameter should the nurse use to evaluate a therapeutic response to the dopamine?

A client is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) with sepsis and acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). The client is orally intubated and mechanically ventilated. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the client's plan of care (POC)?

The healthcare provider (HCP) prescribes dopamine 2 mcg/kg/min IV for client who weighs 60 kg. The IV bag contains "Dopamine 400 mg in dextrose 5% in water (DW) 500 mL." The nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver how many mL/hour? (Enter numerical value only.)