The primary healthcare provider for a client at 38 1/7 weeks' gestation calls the labor and delivery suite to schedule an induction for the next day.The client is having no medical or pregnancy complications.
Which of the following responses by the nurse would be appropriate?

At what time would you like to begin the induction?

What is the client's Bishop score?

I am sorry but the client will not be able to be induced tomorrow.

I will have the prostaglandin induction medication prepared.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale

Induction timing is secondary to assessing readiness. The Bishop score determines cervical favorability for induction success.

Choice B rationale

The Bishop score assesses cervical readiness for labor induction, which is vital in planning an effective induction.

Choice C rationale

Refusal to induce without considering clinical data is inappropriate. The Bishop score evaluation determines readiness.

Choice D rationale

Prostaglandin preparation follows Bishop score assessment to ensure induction safety and efficacy.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Magnesium sulfate is primarily used for neuroprotection in preterm infants and to prevent seizures in severe preeclampsia, not as a first-line tocolytic for preterm labor.

Choice B rationale

Morphine sulfate is an opioid analgesic used for pain management, not for inhibiting preterm labor contractions.

Choice C rationale

Terbutaline is a beta-agonist used as a tocolytic to relax uterine muscles and delay preterm labor. It helps decrease the intensity and frequency of contractions, making it suitable for managing preterm labor.

Choice D rationale

Betamethasone is a corticosteroid used to accelerate fetal lung maturity in preterm labor, not for direct contraction inhibition.

A. The client should never be left alone with her infant. B. Symptoms rarely last more than one week. C. Clinical response to medications is usually poor. D. The client must have her vitals assessed every two days.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Postpartum psychosis poses significant risks to both the mother and her infant. The mother may have impaired judgment, hallucinations, or delusions, making it unsafe for her to be left alone with her baby.

Choice B rationale

Symptoms of postpartum psychosis can persist for several weeks to months without appropriate treatment. Immediate and ongoing intervention is crucial to manage the condition.

Choice C rationale

Clinical response to medications for postpartum psychosis can vary, but with proper treatment, many clients show significant improvement. It is not accurate to state that the response is usually poor.

Choice D rationale

While monitoring vitals may be part of overall care, it is not the most critical teaching point. Ensuring the mother is never left alone with her infant is essential to prevent potential harm.

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The primary healthcare provider for a client at 38 1/7 weeks' gestation calls the labor and delivery suite to schedule an induction for the next day.The client is having no medical or pregnancy complications.Which of the following responses by the nurse would be appropriate?

Nursing Test Bank

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Correct Answer is A

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The primary healthcare provider for a client at 38 1/7 weeks' gestation calls the labor and delivery suite to schedule an induction for the next day.The client is having no medical or pregnancy complications.
Which of the following responses by the nurse would be appropriate?