The nurse is notified by the telemetry monitor tech that the client has been persistently in the following rhythm [see image). The client has a exhibiting the following cardiac rhythm? pulse of 130 bpm, B/P of 86/44 mm Hg, respirations of 24 with a saturation of 90%. Which of the following is a priority intervention for a client exhibiting the following cardiac rhythm?

Obtain blood specimen for a BMP test.
Prepare for synchronize cardioversion
Start CPR
Prepare for defibrillation
The Correct Answer is B
A) Obtain blood specimen for a BMP test:
Although obtaining laboratory tests like a BMP (Basic Metabolic Panel) can be important in evaluating the client’s electrolyte balance and kidney function, it is not the priority intervention in this acute situation. The client is exhibiting a potentially dangerous rhythm and the immediate intervention to stabilize the rhythm is necessary before ordering lab tests.
B) Prepare for synchronized cardioversion:
The priority intervention for a client exhibiting this cardiac rhythm with accompanying signs of hemodynamic instability (low blood pressure, tachycardia, respiratory distress) is synchronized cardioversion. This is especially the case if the rhythm is atrial fibrillation, atrial flutter, or supraventricular tachycardia (SVT), which can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. Synchronized cardioversion is indicated when the patient is symptomatic and hemodynamically unstable.
C) Start CPR:
While starting CPR is critical for a patient who is unresponsive and in a pulseless rhythm (such as ventricular fibrillation or asystole), this client is still responsive with a pulse of 130 bpm. Although the client is in a high-risk rhythm with signs of hemodynamic instability, CPR is not indicated at this moment because the client is not in cardiac arrest.
D) Prepare for defibrillation:
Defibrillation is indicated for life-threatening arrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia. In this case, the client has a pulse, indicating that defibrillation is not appropriate.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Begin initial discharge teaching on home care activities:
While discharge teaching is a vital part of the care process, it is typically an activity assigned to a registered nurse (RN) because it involves comprehensive patient education on topics such as medication management, follow-up care, and recognizing signs of complications. Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) often requires intensive care in the acute phase, and the RN is responsible for evaluating the client’s readiness for discharge and ensuring they fully understand the care required at home
B) Begin administration of red blood cells:
Administering blood products, such as red blood cells, requires close monitoring for potential reactions, and it is typically the responsibility of the RN. The RN must assess the client’s baseline status, monitor for transfusion reactions, and adjust care accordingly during the procedure. This task requires a higher level of clinical judgment and nursing knowledge than an LPN.
C) Reassess the client's mobility in the upper extremity:
Reassessing a client’s mobility, especially in a neurological condition like Guillain-Barré syndrome, requires detailed and ongoing assessment to determine changes in the patient’s strength, motor function, and overall neurological status. This activity is a more complex task that requires a registered nurse's clinical expertise.
D) Administration of morphine for pain:
The administration of pain medications, including morphine, can be appropriately assigned to the LPN under the supervision of an RN. The LPN is trained to administer medications and monitor for common side effects such as respiratory depression, especially in clients who may be at risk due to their neurological condition. However, it is essential for the LPN to communicate with the RN and report any significant changes in the client’s condition during pain management.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Digoxin:
The client’s symptoms of confusion, vision disturbances (such as yellow halos around lights), and anorexia are all classic signs of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin, a cardiac glycoside, is commonly used in the treatment of heart failure and atrial fibrillation. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index, meaning that even slightly elevated blood levels can lead to toxicity. Other common symptoms of digoxin toxicity include bradycardia (which the client is also experiencing with a pulse of 53 bpm), nausea, and vomiting.
B) Diltiazem:
Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used to treat hypertension, angina, and atrial fibrillation. While it can cause bradycardia (as evidenced by the client’s pulse of 53 bpm), vision disturbances and anorexia are not typical side effects of this medication. More common side effects include hypotension, edema, and constipation.
C) Propranolol:
Propranolol is a beta-blocker used to treat hypertension, arrhythmias, and angina, as well as to prevent migraines. Bradycardia is a known side effect of beta-blockers, but vision disturbances and anorexia are not typical of propranolol. Moreover, propranolol can cause hypotension and fatigue but would not be as likely to cause the specific symptoms of confusion and vision changes seen in this client.
D) Captopril:
Captopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly used to treat hypertension and heart failure. Common side effects include hypotension, dizziness, and hyperkalemia, but vision disturbances and anorexia are not typical side effects of captopril. The symptoms the client is experiencing are more specific to digoxin toxicity than to captopril's side effects.
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