The nurse is following up with a male client, diagnosed 3 months ago, with erectile dysfunction who attempted lifestyle modifications as the first line of treatment.
The client reports having continued symptoms.
The nurse should discuss which of the following types of treatment with the client next?

Medications.

Negative-pressure devices.

Penile injections.

Penis transplant.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale

Phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors, such as sildenafil, are the next step in treating erectile dysfunction after lifestyle changes fail. These medications enhance nitric oxide-mediated vasodilation in the penile tissues, improving erectile function. Their efficacy, safety, and widespread availability make them the first-line pharmacological option.

Choice B rationale

Negative-pressure devices, like vacuum erection devices, mechanically increase blood flow to the penis to maintain an erection. While effective for some, they are typically considered after the failure of oral pharmacological agents, as they require significant user compliance and may cause discomfort.

Choice C rationale

Penile injections of vasodilatory agents, such as alprostadil, are effective for managing erectile dysfunction. However, these are invasive and often reserved for cases unresponsive to oral medications or mechanical devices. They are not typically the first choice after lifestyle modification.

Choice D rationale

Penis transplantation is an experimental treatment and not a standard approach to managing erectile dysfunction. Its application is limited to cases of significant penile trauma or congenital abnormalities and is not relevant for individuals without such conditions.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Metal catheters with prostatic curves are used in challenging cases of urinary retention caused by BPH. However, these catheters are not the first-line intervention due to their specialized nature and the risk of injury. Less invasive measures should be tried first.

Choice B rationale

Cystostomy, a surgical procedure that creates a suprapubic urinary drainage site, is reserved for severe cases of urinary retention where catheterization fails. It is not the initial step due to its invasive nature and requirement for surgical expertise.

Choice C rationale

Inserting an indwelling urethral catheter is the first-line action for managing acute urinary retention associated with BPH. It provides immediate bladder decompression, relieves discomfort, and reduces risks of complications like hydronephrosis or bladder rupture.

Choice D rationale

Discussing surgical options addresses the long-term management of BPH but does not resolve acute urinary retention. Interventions like catheterization should first alleviate symptoms before evaluating the need for definitive surgical treatment. .

A. Right and left-sided diastolic. B. Right-sided systolic and diastolic. C. Right-sided diastolic. D. Right-sided systolic.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Right-sided heart failure with thickened heart muscle refers specifically to the impaired filling capacity due to diastolic dysfunction. Diastolic dysfunction affects the filling phase, not the pumping phase. It may involve one side or both sides but is not explicitly described as right and left-sided diastolic in this context.

Choice B rationale

Right-sided systolic heart failure affects the pumping ability, while diastolic affects filling. Both conditions together do not explain the thickened myocardium impairing filling. A combination of systolic and diastolic failure typically includes both pumping and filling abnormalities rather than isolated thickening with poor filling.

Choice C rationale

Right-sided diastolic failure results from impaired ventricular relaxation and thickened myocardium, leading to reduced filling capacity. This type of failure involves the heart's inability to accommodate blood during diastole, consistent with the description of thickened heart muscle and poor filling on the right side.

Choice D rationale

Right-sided systolic failure involves impaired contractility and pumping of blood to the lungs, not poor filling caused by thickened muscle. Systolic dysfunction decreases the heart's output rather than affecting the filling phase described in this scenario.

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The nurse is following up with a male client, diagnosed 3 months ago, with erectile dysfunction who attempted lifestyle modifications as the first line of treatment.The client reports having continued symptoms.The nurse should discuss which of the following types of treatment with the client next?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is caring for a male client with a history of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) who reports being unable to void any urine for the last 8 hours.Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The nurse is explaining to a client diagnosed with heart failure that the client's heart muscle has thickened on the right side and is not able to fill properly.The nurse is explaining which of the following types of heart failure?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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