The nurse is caring for a client who fell while walking to the bathroom. Upon transfer to the intensive care unit, the client is provided with a history of vomiting twice. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Complete head-to-toe neurological assessment

Determine client’s last dose of corticosteroids

Determine neurological baseline prior to the fall

Administer a PRN antiemetic as prescribed

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: A head-to-toe neurological assessment is the priority after a fall with vomiting, as it evaluates for traumatic brain injury or increased intracranial pressure. Vomiting may indicate neurological compromise. This assessment guides urgent interventions, as undetected brain injury can lead to rapid deterioration in the ICU.

Choice B reason: Determining the last corticosteroid dose is relevant for managing underlying conditions but not the immediate priority post-fall. Vomiting and potential head injury require neurological assessment first, as brain trauma poses an acute risk, whereas corticosteroid timing is secondary to stabilizing neurological status.

Choice C reason: Determining the neurological baseline before the fall is useful for comparison but not the first action. A current neurological assessment identifies acute changes or injuries post-fall, as vomiting may signal brain injury, making immediate evaluation critical to guide treatment in the ICU.

Choice D reason: Administering a PRN antiemetic controls vomiting, improving comfort, but does not address the underlying cause. Vomiting post-fall may indicate neurological injury, requiring immediate assessment. Neurological evaluation takes precedence to rule out brain trauma before symptomatic treatment with antiemetics.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Increasing carbohydrate intake may prevent hypoglycemia but does not address the root cause, such as excessive insulin or oral hypoglycemic agents. Reviewing medications identifies dosing issues, ensuring safer management of type 2 diabetes, making it the priority over dietary changes.

Choice B reason: Reviewing the medication regimen is critical, as hypoglycemia in type 2 diabetes often results from excessive insulin or sulfonylureas. Adjusting doses or timing with a provider prevents recurrent episodes, addressing the primary cause and ensuring safe glycemic control, making it the priority action.

Choice C reason: Monitoring blood glucose hourly is reactive and impractical long-term. It confirms hypoglycemia but does not prevent it. Reviewing medications addresses the cause, such as inappropriate dosing, making it more effective for managing recurrent hypoglycemia in type 2 diabetes.

Choice D reason: High-protein snacks stabilize blood glucose but are secondary to addressing medication-related hypoglycemia. Excessive insulin or oral agents are likely causes, so reviewing the regimen is prioritized to correct dosing, preventing recurrent episodes more effectively than dietary adjustments alone.

A. Age over 40 years B. Daily walking 2 to 3 miles C. Low-fat diet D. Male gender

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Age over 40 increases cholelithiasis risk due to reduced gallbladder motility and increased bile cholesterol saturation, promoting gallstone formation. Aging alters bile composition, with higher lithogenic potential, making older adults more susceptible to cholesterol gallstones, a primary type in Western populations.

Choice B reason: Daily walking of 2 to 3 miles reduces cholelithiasis risk by promoting physical activity, which enhances gallbladder motility and reduces bile stasis. Exercise lowers cholesterol levels in bile, decreasing stone formation, making this a protective factor rather than a risk.

Choice C reason: A low-fat diet decreases cholelithiasis risk by reducing dietary cholesterol intake, which lowers bile cholesterol saturation. This promotes healthier bile composition, reducing the likelihood of cholesterol gallstone formation, making it a protective dietary habit rather than a risk factor.

Choice D reason: Male gender is associated with a lower risk of cholelithiasis compared to females, who have higher estrogen levels that increase bile cholesterol. Men have less lithogenic bile, making gender a protective factor, not a significant risk, unlike age-related changes.

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The nurse is caring for a client who fell while walking to the bathroom. Upon transfer to the intensive care unit, the client is provided with a history of vomiting twice. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is caring for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus who reports frequent episodes of hypoglycemia. Which action should the nurse prioritize?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The nurse is reviewing risk factors for cholelithiasis in a client’s history. Which factor most significantly increases the client’s risk for developing gallstones?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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