The nurse identifies which of the following as one of the primary nursing interventions for preventing surgical site infection?

Having the patient splint their incision site when coughing and deep breathing

Offering around the clock pain medication the immediate post operative phase

Administering prescribed pre-operative antibiotics within 30-60 minutes of surgery.

Performing the first dressing change on a new surgical site in the post operative setting

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Having the patient splint their incision site when coughing and deep breathing:
While splinting the incision site can help alleviate pain and prevent strain on the surgical wound during coughing and deep breathing, it is not a primary intervention for preventing surgical site infection. Infection prevention is more directly related to sterile technique, antibiotic prophylaxis, and maintaining a clean environment around the wound. Splinting can support postoperative recovery, but it does not directly prevent infection.

B. Offering around the clock pain medication in the immediate post-operative phase:
Providing pain medication is important for patient comfort and to facilitate early mobilization after surgery. However, pain management does not directly prevent surgical site infections. The focus for infection prevention lies in maintaining sterility, administering antibiotics as prescribed, and appropriate wound care rather than pain control alone.

C. Administering prescribed pre-operative antibiotics within 30-60 minutes of surgery:
The administration of prophylactic antibiotics before surgery, typically within 30-60 minutes of the incision, is a primary intervention for preventing surgical site infections (SSIs). This timing ensures that the antibiotics are at therapeutic levels in the bloodstream when the surgical procedure begins, reducing the risk of introducing bacteria into the surgical site. This is a well-established guideline for infection prevention in surgical settings.

D. Performing the first dressing change on a new surgical site in the postoperative setting:
The first dressing change should generally be done by a healthcare professional using sterile technique. However, the timing and handling of the first dressing change are more related to wound care practices rather than a primary strategy for preventing infection. Infection prevention primarily involves proper antibiotic prophylaxis, maintaining a sterile field, and managing the surgical site during the early post-operative period. The first dressing change, while important for wound healing, is not the most immediate or primary intervention for preventing surgical site infection.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. The blockage is most likely in the right parietal region:
While a facial droop and weakness can be indicative of a stroke, the specific location of the blockage cannot be definitively determined based on the symptoms alone. A right-sided facial droop suggests that the lesion or event likely involves the left side of the brain, particularly the frontal or temporal regions, as these areas are typically associated with facial motor control. A parietal lesion would more commonly result in sensory deficits or spatial issues, not primarily facial droop. Therefore, this statement is not correct in this case.

B. This type of event can be one of the primary warning signs of a future stroke:
The client’s presentation of unilateral facial droop and weakness that resolves spontaneously within an hour is highly consistent with a transient ischemic attack (TIA). A TIA, often referred to as a "mini-stroke," is characterized by temporary neurological deficits that resolve without permanent damage. TIAs are considered warning signs of a potential future stroke, and the client should be evaluated promptly to address risk factors and prevent a more serious, permanent stroke.

C. The signs and symptoms are most consistent with an acute hemorrhagic stroke:
An acute hemorrhagic stroke typically presents with sudden and severe neurological deficits, such as a severe headache, vomiting, and loss of consciousness. Hemorrhagic strokes do not typically resolve spontaneously within an hour. The client's symptoms (unilateral facial droop and weakness that resolve within an hour) are more indicative of a TIA, not a hemorrhagic stroke. A hemorrhagic stroke would likely result in sustained deficits and a more urgent clinical presentation.

D. The signs and symptoms are most consistent with a focal awareness seizure:
Focal awareness seizures (previously known as simple partial seizures) generally involve abnormal electrical activity in a specific area of the brain, leading to symptoms such as motor twitches or sensory disturbances, but not typically a full facial droop or weakness. These seizures do not cause symptoms that resolve in such a short time, nor do they present with unilateral weakness in the manner described here. Therefore, this scenario is not consistent with a seizure disorder.

A. Stow, shallow respirations and low heart rate B. Fever and flushed skin C. Disorientation and confusion in an elderly patient D. Increasing heart rate and decreasing blood pressure

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Slow, shallow respirations and low heart rate:
Slow, shallow respirations and a low heart rate are not typical signs of postoperative hemorrhage. These signs might suggest respiratory or cardiac issues, but they are not specific to hemorrhage. In fact, hemorrhage is more likely to result in tachycardia (increased heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure) rather than bradycardia (low heart rate). Therefore, this finding is not indicative of post-operative hemorrhage.

B. Fever and flushed skin:
Fever and flushed skin are more commonly associated with infection rather than hemorrhage. After surgery, fever can be a sign of infection, particularly if it occurs 24-48 hours postoperatively. While infection can sometimes cause a rise in heart rate, it does not directly correlate with the symptoms of hemorrhage. Therefore, fever and flushed skin are not the most indicative of hemorrhage in the immediate postoperative phase.

C. Disorientation and confusion in an elderly patient:
Disorientation and confusion in the elderly post-operative patient can be concerning and may be caused by a variety of factors, such as medication side effects, electrolyte imbalances, or postoperative delirium. While confusion can occur with significant blood loss, it is not a primary indicator of hemorrhage. The signs of hemorrhage are more likely to include changes in vital signs, especially heart rate and blood pressure. Therefore, while disorientation and confusion should be monitored, they are not the most definitive sign of hemorrhage.

D. Increasing heart rate and decreasing blood pressure:
Increasing heart rate (tachycardia) and decreasing blood pressure (hypotension) are classic signs of hemorrhage. When blood loss occurs, the body compensates by increasing the heart rate to maintain cardiac output and attempting to constrict blood vessels. As hemorrhage progresses, blood volume decreases, which leads to a drop in blood pressure. This combination of tachycardia and hypotension is a key indicator of significant blood loss and requires immediate assessment and intervention. Therefore, this is the most indicative finding of postoperative hemorrhage.

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The nurse identifies which of the following as one of the primary nursing interventions for preventing surgical site infection?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is caring for a client who presented with unilateral facial droop and weakness that lasted for about an hour before resolving spontaneausly without intervention. Which of the following is true regarding this situation?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The nurse is assessing a patient in the immediate post-operative phase. Which of thr following assessment findings would be most indicative of post-operative hemorrhage?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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