Per DSM-5, at least one of the following has to be present to diagnose schizophrenia except
Hallucinations
Delusions
Disorganized speech
Negative symptoms
The Correct Answer is D
A. Hallucinations are a core positive symptom of schizophrenia and involve false sensory perceptions without an external stimulus (e.g., hearing voices, seeing things that are not there). According to the DSM-5, hallucinations are one of the three essential symptoms that must be present for a diagnosis.
B. Delusions are fixed, false beliefs that persist despite evidence to the contrary (e.g., persecutory delusions, grandiose delusions). Delusions are a hallmark symptom of schizophrenia and are required as a diagnostic criterion if present.
C. Disorganized speech reflects disorganized thinking, a key symptom of schizophrenia. It includes incoherence, tangentiality, and word salad, demonstrating the cognitive dysfunction associated with the disorder. If disorganized speech is present, it fulfils one of the primary diagnostic criteria.
D. Negative symptoms such as avolition, anhedonia, alogia, and flat affect, are common in schizophrenia but are not required for diagnosis. According to the DSM-5, at least one of the following three symptoms hallucinations, delusions, or disorganized speech must be present to meet the diagnostic criteria for schizophrenia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Haloperidol (Haldol) is a first-generation (typical) antipsychotic that primarily blocks dopamine (D2) receptors. It is associated with a higher risk of extrapyramidal side effects (EPS), including dystonia, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia, compared to second-generation antipsychotics.
B. Ziprasidone (Geodon) is a second-generation (atypical) antipsychotic that blocks both dopamine (D2) and serotonin (5-HT2A) receptors. It has a lower risk of EPS but can cause QT prolongation, requiring ECG monitoring in patients with cardiac conditions.
C. Risperidone (Risperdal) is a second-generation antipsychotic with dopamine and serotonin antagonism. It is effective for schizophrenia, bipolar disorder, and irritability in autism but has a higher likelihood of prolactin elevation and EPS at higher doses.
D. Olanzapine (Zyprexa) is a second-generation antipsychotic known for its high risk of metabolic side effects, including weight gain, diabetes, and dyslipidemia. It has a lower risk of EPS compared to first-generation antipsychotics.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Tachycardia. Stimulants (e.g., methylphenidate, amphetamines) increase dopamine and norepinephrine levels, leading to sympathetic nervous system activation. This can cause tachycardia, increased blood pressure, and palpitations, making cardiovascular monitoring important in patients taking stimulants.
B. Decreased appetite. Stimulants suppress appetite, often leading to weight loss and nutritional deficiencies in children and adolescents. This is due to their effect on the hypothalamus, which regulates hunger and satiety.
C. Delayed growth. Chronic stimulant use has been associated with temporary growth suppression in children, possibly due to reduced appetite and changes in growth hormone regulation. However, growth typically normalizes after drug holidays or discontinuation.
D. Drooling (sialorrhea) is not a side effect of stimulants. Instead, it is more commonly associated with antipsychotics like clozapine, which cause excessive salivation due to muscarinic receptor effects. Stimulants, if anything, may cause dry mouth rather than drooling.
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