Neurologic Case Study
Patient Profile:
- Age: 68 years.
- Gender: Male.
- Medical History: Hypertension, Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus.
- Medications: Lisinopril, Metformin.
- Allergies: None.
Chief Complaint: The patient presents to the emergency department (ED) with a sudden onset of right-sided weakness and difficulty speaking that began approximately 1 hour prior to arrival.
What is a potential complication of the patient's condition?
Kidney failure
Aspiration pneumonia
Hypotension
Heart failure
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Kidney failure is not a common immediate complication related to the patient's presentation of sudden right-sided weakness and difficulty speaking, which are indicative of a stroke. Although diabetes and hypertension can eventually lead to kidney issues, this is not an acute complication.
Choice B reason: Aspiration pneumonia is a potential complication of the patient's condition, especially given the presence of expressive aphasia. Patients with neurological deficits, particularly those affecting speech and swallowing, are at higher risk of aspirating food or liquids into the lungs, leading to pneumonia.
Choice C reason: Hypotension is not commonly a direct complication of a stroke, especially considering the patient's elevated blood pressure. Stroke patients often present with hypertension rather than hypotension.
Choice D reason: Heart failure, while related to the patient's underlying conditions like hypertension and possibly diabetes, is not an immediate complication of the acute neurological event described. The focus should be more on the neurological and respiratory complications.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: A hemoglobin level of 12.0 g/dL is slightly below the normal range for men but is not the most critical concern preoperatively. It indicates mild anemia, which should be monitored but does not present an immediate high risk.
Choice B reason: A serum creatinine level of 1.3 mg/dL is slightly elevated and indicates mild renal impairment. While this should be considered, it is not as immediately concerning as a significantly abnormal coagulation value.
Choice C reason: A Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN) level of 24 mg/dL is slightly above normal, indicating some renal function impairment or dehydration. However, it does not pose the most significant immediate risk compared to a high INR value.
Choice D reason: An INR of 3.5 is significantly elevated and indicates a high risk of bleeding. For a surgical patient, this is the most concerning pre-op lab value because it suggests that the patient's blood is not clotting properly. This increases the risk of excessive bleeding during and after surgery, making it a priority to address before proceeding with the operation.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Preventing skin maceration is not the primary purpose of the reverse Trendelenburg position. Skin maceration typically occurs due to excessive moisture on the skin, and the bed position does not directly address this issue.
Choice B reason: Reducing restenosis, which is the re-narrowing of a blood vessel after it has been treated, is not directly affected by the patient's bed position. Restenosis is more related to the procedure performed and the patient's overall condition rather than positioning.
Choice C reason: Reducing the risk of infection is also not a direct benefit of the reverse Trendelenburg position. Infection prevention involves maintaining sterile techniques, proper wound care, and monitoring for signs of infection.
Choice D reason: Increasing perfusion to the legs is the correct rationale for placing the bed in the reverse Trendelenburg position for a patient with critical limb ischemia. This position helps to improve blood flow to the lower extremities by utilizing gravity to aid in circulation, thus enhancing oxygen and nutrient delivery to the affected tissues.
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