Exhibits

Select a condition, the assessment cues, and anticipated solutions for this client.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is []

A. Assessment Cues

Unprotected Sexual Activity increases the risk of sexually transmitted infections (STIs). The client has had multiple sexual partners in the past month without protection, making her susceptible to infections such as trichomoniasis, gonorrhea, chlamydia, and bacterial vaginosis. This is a significant risk factor for her symptoms.
Foul-smelling discharge is a common symptom of trichomoniasis, bacterial vaginosis, and other vaginal infections. UTIs primarily cause dysuria, frequency, urgency, and suprapubic pain, not vaginal symptoms. Since the urinalysis does not show leukocytes, nitrates, or bacteria, a UTI is unlikely.

B. Condition – Trichomoniasis

The client's symptoms—green-yellow vaginal discharge, vaginal itching, and foul-smelling odor—are classic signs of trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection caused by Trichomonas vaginalis. The disease is associated with malodorous discharge, vaginal irritation, and possible dysuria.

C. Anticipated Solutions

Oral Metronidazole: The first-line treatment for trichomoniasis is oral metronidazole (Flagyl) 2g as a single dose or 500mg twice daily for 7 days. Metronidazole effectively eliminates the infection. Patients must be educated to avoid alcohol while taking metronidazole due to the risk of a disulfiram-like reaction (severe nausea and vomiting).
Safe sexual behaviors, such as consistent condom use, regular STI screening, mutual monogamy, and open communication about sexual history, are essential for reducing the risk of sexually transmitted infections (STIs), including trichomoniasis.

Incorrect answers:

Human Papillomavirus (HPV): HPV causes genital warts and increases the risk of cervical cancer, but it does not typically cause vaginal discharge, itching, or foul odor. Therefore, HPV is not the most likely condition in this case.

Depression: While multiple sexual partners and STI diagnoses can cause emotional distress, depression is not directly relevant to her current presentation. However, mental health screening may be beneficial if she expresses concerns about her emotional well-being.

Herpes simplex virus (HSV) is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) that can cause genital ulcers, pain, and discomfort. However, based on the client’s symptoms, HSV is not the most likely diagnosis.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. "Placenta previa usually results in a higher risk of maternal hypertension, while abruptio placentae is commonly associated with a low-risk pregnancy.
This is incorrect because abruptio placentae, not placenta previa, is associated with maternal hypertension (e.g., preeclampsia, chronic hypertension). Placenta previa is not related to blood pressure issues.

B. "Placenta previa is characterized by sudden onset of severe abdominal pain and uterine tenderness, while abruptio placentae is associated with painless bleeding."
This is incorrect because placenta previa presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding, while abruptio placentae causes sudden, severe abdominal pain, uterine tenderness, and possibly dark red bleeding.

C. "Placenta previa typically presents with severe pain and contractions, whereas abruptio placentae involves painless bleeding without contractions."
This is incorrect because placenta previa does not cause pain or contractions. In contrast, abruptio placentae often presents with painful contractions and uterine hypertonicity.

D. "Placenta previa involves the placenta partially or completely covering the cervix, whereas abruptio placentae involves the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall."
Placenta previa occurs when the placenta covers the cervix (partial or complete), leading to bleeding. Abruptio placentae occurs when the placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall, which can lead to hemorrhage and fetal distress.

A. "The recommendation for you is about 15 to 25 pounds." B. "A gain of about 25 to 35 pounds is recommended for you." C. "A gain of about 1 pound per week is the best pattern for you." D. "It would be best if you gained about 11 to 20 pounds."

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. "The recommendation for you is about 15 to 25 pounds."
This recommendation is appropriate for clients who are overweight (BMI 25–29.9), not those with a normal BMI.

B. "A gain of about 25 to 35 pounds is recommended for you."
A BMI of 23.5 falls within the normal range (18.5–24.9). The recommended total weight gain for clients with a normal BMI is 25–35 lbs (11.3–15.9 kg) during pregnancy to support fetal growth and maternal health.

C. "A gain of about 1 pound per week is the best pattern for you."
While the recommended weight gain in the second and third trimesters is about 1 lb/week, total weight gain is individualized based on pre-pregnancy BMI.

D. "It would be best if you gained about 11 to 20 pounds."
This is the recommendation for obese clients (BMI ≥30), not those with a normal BMI.

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Exhibits Select a condition, the assessment cues, and anticipated solutions for this client.

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is reviewing the differences between placenta previa and abruptio placentae with a group of nursing students. Which of the following statements accurately differentiates placenta previa from abruptio placentae?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client at the first prenatal visit who has a BMI of 23.5. The client asks how much weight she should gain during pregnancy. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A client is admitted with a threatened abortion. Which assessment findings would the nurse expect? Select all that apply. (Select All that Apply.)

A teenager presents to the clinic with complaints of painful lesions, fever, headache, and vaginal discharge. After testing she is diagnosed with Herpes simplex virus type 2. What education should the nurse include in a teaching plan? (Select All that Apply.)

Based on the clients assessment on 2/11 at 1200, indicate if the client's condition is improving, worsening or not related based on the condition.

A nurse is preparing to administer magnesium sulfate IV to a client who is experiencing preterm labor. Which of the following is the priority nursing assessment for this client?

A nurse is monitoring a client who is receiving magnesium sulfate for severe preeclampsia. The client asks, "How will I know if the medication is working?" Which response by the nurse is most appropriate?

A nurse is caring for a client in the first trimester of pregnancy and discovers that the client lacks immunity to rubella based on her blood work. When is the recommended time for administering rubella immunization?

A nurse is reviewing the different signs of pregnancy with a client who is in her first trimester. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse classify as a positive sign of pregnancy?

A nurse on the postpartum unit is caring for a group of clients with an assistive personnel (AP). Which of the following tasks should the nurse plan to delegate to the AP?

Exhibits

Select a condition, the assessment cues, and anticipated solutions for this client.