During a Tensilon test to determine if a patient has myasthenia gravis, the patient complains of cramping and becomes diaphoretic with increased oral secretions after receiving edrophonium IV. Vital signs are HR 55, BP 130/78, respiration 12 and saturation of 94%. What intervention should the nurse prepare to do?

Continue to monitor as this is a normal response to the medication

Administration of atropine

Place the patient in the trendelenburg position

Administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for the allergic reaction

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

A) Continue to monitor as this is a normal response to the medication: The symptoms the patient is experiencing (cramping, diaphoresis, increased oral secretions) are not normal responses to the edrophonium test and suggest a cholinergic crisis rather than a simple reaction to the medication. A cholinergic crisis occurs when there is overmedication with cholinergic drugs, leading to excessive stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system. While mild effects like slight nausea or dizziness can occur, cramping, diaphoresis, and increased oral secretions indicate toxicity, requiring immediate intervention.

B) Administration of atropine: The symptoms the patient is exhibiting—cramping, diaphoresis, and increased oral secretions—are indicative of cholinergic toxicity. Edrophonium, a cholinesterase inhibitor, is used in the Tensilon test to diagnose myasthenia gravis by temporarily improving muscle strength. However, in some cases, the patient may experience a cholinergic crisis from an overdose of the medication, resulting in excess acetylcholine at synapses, which overstimulates the parasympathetic nervous system. Atropine, an anticholinergic agent, blocks the effects of acetylcholine and is used to reverse these symptoms by reducing the excessive parasympathetic activity (e.g., reducing secretions and improving heart rate).

C) Place the patient in the Trendelenburg position: The Trendelenburg position (head down, feet up) is often used in cases of shock to help increase venous return to the heart. However, it is not appropriate for a cholinergic crisis. The patient’s symptoms are not due to hypotension or shock but are related to an overdose of edrophonium causing parasympathetic overstimulation.

D) Administer diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for the allergic reaction: The symptoms the patient is experiencing (cramping, diaphoresis, increased oral secretions) are not related to an allergic reaction. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is an antihistamine used for allergic reactions, such as urticaria or anaphylaxis, but it does not treat cholinergic toxicity.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A) Prednisone:
Prednisone is a corticosteroid commonly used to reduce inflammation in conditions such as asthma. It is appropriate in this case for managing the asthma exacerbation, as steroids help to decrease airway inflammation and improve breathing. There is no immediate concern about prednisone in this client with both asthma and a history of heart failure.

B) Metoprolol:
Metoprolol is a beta-blocker, typically used for managing heart failure, hypertension, and arrhythmias. However, beta-blockers are generally avoided in asthma patients because they can exacerbate bronchospasm. In patients with asthma, beta-blockers can block beta-2 receptors in the lungs, leading to constriction of the airways and worsening respiratory symptoms.

C) Labetolol:
Labetolol is a beta-blocker with both alpha- and beta-blocking effects, which can help lower blood pressure and manage heart failure. While labetalol can also block beta-2 receptors, it has a relatively lower risk of causing bronchospasm compared to non-selective beta-blockers like metoprolol. However, it still poses some risk to patients with asthma. Given the patient's history of asthma, labetolol may still require caution, but it is generally considered safer than other beta-blockers.

D) Albuterol:
Albuterol is a bronchodilator used to relieve acute asthma symptoms and is commonly prescribed for asthma exacerbations. It works by stimulating beta-2 receptors in the lungs, leading to the relaxation of bronchial smooth muscles and improved airflow. In this case, albuterol is an appropriate medication for managing asthma exacerbation and should be used to relieve symptoms of shortness of breath and wheezing.

A. Hydration with IV fluids B. Nothing as the digoxin level is within normal ranges C. Hold the Digoxin D. Digibind E. Narcan

Correct Answer is ["A"]

Explanation

A) Hydration with IV fluids:
IV hydration may be ordered to improve kidney function and help facilitate the excretion of excess digoxin from the body. Digoxin toxicity is often related to impaired renal clearance, so improving hydration can promote renal perfusion and enhance the elimination of the drug. This is a common supportive measure to help in managing digoxin toxicity.

B) Nothing as the digoxin level is within normal ranges:
This is incorrect because the patient's digoxin level is 4 ng/ml, which is significantly above the normal therapeutic range of 0.8–2.0 ng/ml. A level of 4 ng/ml is toxic, and immediate action is required. Symptoms like severe bradycardia, nausea, and vomiting are indicative of digoxin toxicity, and they necessitate prompt intervention.

C) Hold the Digoxin:
In the case of digoxin toxicity, it is crucial to hold the digoxin. Digoxin should be discontinued immediately if toxicity is suspected, as continuing the medication could worsen symptoms like bradycardia and increase the risk of potentially life-threatening arrhythmias. This step is essential to prevent further complications.

D) Digibind:
Digibind (Digoxin immune fab) is a digoxin-specific antibody used in cases of severe digoxin toxicity or overdose. It binds to the digoxin molecules and helps to neutralize its effects. Given the elevated level of digoxin (4 ng/ml) and the presence of symptoms like severe bradycardia, nausea, and vomiting, Digibind is likely to be ordered to reverse the effects of the toxicity.

E) Narcan:
Narcan (naloxone) is used to reverse opioid overdoses, not digoxin toxicity. There is no indication for the use of Narcan in this scenario, as digoxin toxicity does not involve opioid overdose. This intervention would be inappropriate and irrelevant to the management of digoxin toxicity.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse in the respiratory unit is caring for client who has a past medical history of heart failure and is currently admitted for asthma exacerbation. When reviewing the provider's orders further clarification is needed for which of the following medications?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A patient taking Digoxin is experiencing severe bradycardia, nausea and vomiting. A lab draw shows that their Digoxin level is 4 ng/mi (0.8-2.0 ng/ml). What management does the nurse anticipate the physician to order? Select all that apply.

Correct Answer is ["A"]

Explanation

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