Based on this rhythm strip, which interpretation should the nurse make?
Junctional tachycardia.
Second degree Type II atrioventricular (AV) block (3 to 1).
Ventricular fibrillation.
Atrial flutter.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Junctional tachycardia: Junctional tachycardia originates from the AV node, typically with a narrow QRS, absent or inverted P waves, and a rate of 100–180 bpm. The strip does not show these features.
B. Second-degree Type II AV block (3:1).Type II AV block (Mobitz II) shows dropped QRS complexes with constant PR intervals before conducted beats. This strip does not show missing QRS complexes in a 3:1 pattern.
C. Ventricular fibrillation. VF is characterized by a chaotic, disorganized rhythm with no discernible P waves, QRS complexes, or T waves, completely different from this organized flutter pattern.
D. Atrial flutter is characterized by regular, rapid atrial depolarizations (flutter waves) at a rate of 250–350 bpm. These waves create a "sawtooth" pattern on the ECG.The ventricular response may be regular or irregular, depending on AV conduction. This is different from atrial fibrillation (which has irregularly irregular R-R intervals and no discrete P waves).
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Prepare for oral intubation. The client is in severe respiratory distress with oxygen saturation at 88% despite receiving 100% oxygen via a nonrebreather mask. This suggests respiratory failure, likely due to a pulmonary embolism (PE), a known complication following bariatric surgery. Immediate intubation and mechanical ventilation are necessary to prevent further hypoxia and respiratory collapse.
B. Apply leg compression hose. While deep vein thrombosis (DVT) prophylaxis is essential for postoperative bariatric patients, it is not the priority in an acute emergency. Compression devices help prevent clots but do not treat an existing life-threatening pulmonary embolism.
C. Maintain head of bed at 45°. Elevating the head of the bed can help with breathing, but it will not significantly improve oxygenation in a client already failing on 100% oxygen. The priority is to secure the airway with intubation to provide controlled ventilation.
D. Administer an anticoagulant. Anticoagulation is a key treatment for pulmonary embolism, but it does not immediately improve oxygenation or stabilize respiratory function. In a hemodynamically unstable client with severe hypoxia, securing the airway takes priority before initiating anticoagulation therapy.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. pH 7.25 and HCO₃⁻ 18 mEq/L. A pH of 7.25 is still acidotic, and a bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L is below the normal range (22–26 mEq/L), indicating persistent metabolic acidosis. This suggests that ketoacidosis is not fully resolved, requiring continued insulin therapy, hydration, and electrolyte management.
B. pH 7.30 and HCO₃⁻ 20 mEq/L. While this shows partial improvement, the pH remains below 7.35, indicating ongoing mild acidosis. The bicarbonate level is still below normal, suggesting that buffering capacity is not yet fully restored. Additional treatment is required to completely normalize acid-base balance.
C. pH 7.38 and HCO₃⁻ 24 mEq/L. A pH of 7.38 falls within the normal range (7.35–7.45), indicating that acidosis has resolved. The bicarbonate level of 24 mEq/L is within normal limits, confirming that the body’s buffering system has been restored. These values suggest that ketoacidosis has resolved, and treatment has been effective.
D. pH 7.20 and HCO₃⁻ 15 mEq/L. A pH of 7.20 indicates severe metabolic acidosis, and a bicarbonate level of 15 mEq/L shows a significant loss of buffering capacity. These values suggest uncontrolled DKA or worsening acidosis, requiring urgent intervention with continued insulin therapy, fluid resuscitation, and electrolyte replacement.
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