A registered nurse is attempting to change the method for documenting client care in a medical/surgical floor setting. What questions should be considered before planning change? (Select all that apply.)
How can the change be averted?
How cohesive does the group function as a unit?
Is the group as a whole amenable to change?
Is the group ready for change?
Correct Answer : B,C,D
Choice A rationale:
Focuses on avoiding change rather than managing it effectively. Change is often necessary for improvement and growth. Seeking ways to avert it can hinder progress and prevent potential benefits.
Undermines the nurse's role as a change agent. Nurses are expected to play a proactive role in initiating and implementing change to enhance patient care and organizational effectiveness.
May lead to missed opportunities to address issues or challenges. By focusing on averting change, underlying problems may remain unaddressed, potentially compromising patient care or organizational efficiency.
Choice B rationale:
Addresses group cohesion, which is crucial for successful change implementation. Cohesive groups demonstrate better communication, collaboration, and support, facilitating acceptance and adaptation to change.
Recognizes that change can disrupt group dynamics and relationships. Assessing group cohesion allows for identification of potential challenges and development of strategies to strengthen relationships and foster teamwork during the change process.
Highlights the importance of considering the social and relational aspects of change. Change is not only a technical process; it involves individuals with emotions, beliefs, and social connections that need to be considered for successful implementation.
Choice C rationale:
Assesses the group's overall openness and willingness to accept change. Some groups may be more resistant to change due to past experiences, fear of the unknown, or attachment to existing practices.
Determines if the change aligns with the group's values and beliefs. Change that conflicts with deeply held values is likely to encounter stronger resistance and may require additional strategies to address concerns and build consensus.
Recognizes that not all groups are equally adaptable to change. Understanding the group's amenability to change helps in tailoring implementation strategies and managing potential resistance.
Choice D rationale:
Evaluates the group's preparedness for change in terms of knowledge, skills, and resources. Insufficient preparation can lead to confusion, frustration, and decreased effectiveness during the change process.
Considers the group's emotional readiness to accept and adapt to change. Even if a change is technically feasible, emotional resistance can hinder its success. Assessing readiness allows for addressing concerns and providing support to facilitate the transition.
Ensures that the group has the necessary support and resources to implement the change successfully. Change often requires training, guidance, and time for adjustment. Providing adequate support systems is essential for successful implementation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Straight catheters are single-use catheters that are inserted into the bladder to drain urine and then immediately removed. They are not suitable for long-term use in clients with obstructed urethras because they would need to be inserted repeatedly, causing discomfort and potential trauma to the urethral tissues. Additionally, the obstruction itself would make it difficult or impossible to insert a straight catheter.
Choice B rationale:
Indwelling urethral catheters, also known as Foley catheters, are inserted into the bladder and remain in place for a period of time. They are typically used for clients who cannot void on their own or who require continuous bladder drainage. However, they are not the best option for clients with obstructed urethras for the following reasons:
The presence of the catheter within the urethra can further irritate or damage the already obstructed tissues. The balloon that holds the catheter in place could potentially worsen the obstruction.
The risk of urinary tract infections (UTIs) is increased with indwelling catheters.
Choice C rationale:
Intermittent urethral catheters are inserted into the bladder to drain urine and then removed. They are typically used by clients who can self-catheterize several times a day. However, they are not suitable for clients with complete prostatic obstruction, as the obstruction would make it difficult or impossible to insert the catheter.
Choice D rationale:
Suprapubic catheters are inserted directly into the bladder through a small incision in the abdomen, bypassing the urethra entirely. This makes them the most suitable option for clients with obstructed urethras, as it eliminates the need to pass a catheter through the obstructed area. Suprapubic catheters offer several advantages in this situation:
They avoid further irritation or damage to the urethral tissues.
They provide a more comfortable and convenient option for long-term bladder drainage.
They may reduce the risk of UTIs compared to indwelling urethral catheters.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Tertiary health promotion and illness prevention focus on managing existing health conditions and preventing complications. Administering a nebulized bronchodilator to a client who is short of breath directly addresses an existing respiratory problem, aiming to relieve symptoms and prevent further respiratory distress. This intervention falls under tertiary prevention because it targets a client already experiencing respiratory symptoms.
Key points:
Bronchodilators open constricted airways, easing airflow and breathing.
Nebulizers deliver medication directly to the lungs, providing rapid relief.
Shortness of breath is a common symptom of respiratory conditions like asthma and COPD.
Prompt treatment of respiratory symptoms can prevent worsening of the condition and potential complications.
Choice B rationale:
Teaching a client about the risks of light cigarettes is an example of primary prevention. It aims to prevent lung disease before it develops by educating individuals about the harms of smoking.
Choice C rationale:
Advocating for more explicit warning labels on cigarette packages is a form of secondary prevention. It targets at-risk populations (smokers) to encourage behavior change and reduce smoking rates, ultimately lowering the incidence of lung disease.
Choice D rationale:
Assisting with lung function testing is a diagnostic procedure, not a tertiary prevention intervention. It helps to identify respiratory problems but doesn't directly manage or prevent them.
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