A patient who has been taking esomeprazole reports a new onset of muscle cramps. Which of the following might be the cause of this symptom?

Hypocalcemia

Hyperkalemia

Hypercalcemia

Hyponatremia

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A. Hypocalcemia is correct because esomeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor, can lead to decreased calcium absorption, resulting in low calcium levels, which can cause muscle cramps.

B. Hyperkalemia is incorrect; while potassium levels can be affected by various medications, muscle cramps are not typically associated with high potassium levels.

C. Hypercalcemia is incorrect as it refers to elevated calcium levels, which would not cause muscle cramps and could actually lead to muscle weakness rather than cramping.

D. Hyponatremia is incorrect; low sodium levels may cause other symptoms but are not specifically linked to muscle cramps in the same way as low calcium levels are.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. heart rate is not the primary concern when assessing the interaction between NSAIDs and loop diuretics.

B. blood pressure is correct; the combination of an NSAID and a loop diuretic can lead to fluid retention, potentially elevating blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial in this context.

C. cognition is not directly impacted by the combination of these medications.

D. assessment for signs of bleeding is important when taking NSAIDs due to their effect on platelet function, but the more immediate concern is the potential fluid retention affecting blood pressure.

A. Administer vitamin K per provider's orders. B. Increase the dose of warfarin and monitor INR more frequently per provider's orders. C. Discontinue warfarin and administer a dose of heparin per provider's orders. D. Continue warfarin and monitor for any symptoms of bleeding per provider's orders.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. An INR of 5.0 indicates a significantly increased risk of bleeding, and administering vitamin K is the appropriate antidote for reversing the effects of warfarin. This is a critical intervention to restore coagulation.

B. Increasing the dose of warfarin is inappropriate in this scenario because the INR is already elevated; it would further increase bleeding risk.

C. While heparin can be used for anticoagulation, it is not appropriate to administer it while the INR is dangerously high without reversing the warfarin first.

D. Continuing warfarin is unsafe at this INR level due to the high risk of bleeding; monitoring for symptoms without intervention is not adequate care.

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A patient who has been taking esomeprazole reports a new onset of muscle cramps. Which of the following might be the cause of this symptom?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client's current drug regimen includes a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug (NSAID) and a loop diuretic. What assessment should the nurse consequently prioritize?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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