A nurse recognizes that alterations in cardiac output are caused by changes in heart rate, preload, afterload, and contractility. Which interventions are correctly matched to treat the cause of low cardiac output? Select all that apply.
a) Low afterload: administer vasopressor.
b) Low afterload: administer vasodilator.
c) Low right atrial (R

Low afterload: administer vasopressor.

Low afterload: administer vasodilator.

Low right atrial (RA) pressure: administer diuretics.

Low preload: administer fluid bolus.

High preload: administer diuretic or vasodilator.

Answer and Explanation

Correct Answer : D

Choice A reason: Administering a vasopressor is not appropriate for low afterload. Vasopressors are used to increase blood pressure by causing vasoconstriction, which increases afterload. However, the administration of a vasopressor for low afterload is contradictory because the goal for low afterload would be to reduce the strain on the heart, not to increase it.

Choice B reason: Administering a vasodilator for low afterload is not correct. Vasodilators decrease afterload by causing the blood vessels to widen, reducing the resistance the heart has to pump against. Administering a vasodilator to treat low afterload is inappropriate because it would further lower afterload, potentially leading to inadequate perfusion and worsening cardiac output.

Choice C reason: Administering diuretics for low right atrial (RA) pressure is inappropriate. Diuretics help to remove excess fluid from the body, reducing blood volume and venous pressure. However, if a patient has low right atrial pressure, reducing blood volume further with diuretics could exacerbate the issue, leading to decreased cardiac output and poor perfusion.

Choice D reason: Administering a fluid bolus is the correct intervention for low preload. Preload refers to the volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole. If preload is low, administering fluids increases blood volume, which enhances ventricular filling and improves cardiac output. This intervention helps to stabilize hemodynamics and improve overall perfusion.

Choice E reason: Administering a diuretic or vasodilator is the appropriate intervention for high preload. High preload indicates an excess of blood volume returning to the heart, which can strain the cardiac muscle and reduce efficiency. Diuretics help remove excess fluid, while vasodilators decrease venous return and reduce the volume of blood the heart has to handle, thus optimizing cardiac function and output.

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Correct Answer is C,D,A,B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Assessing the client's respiratory status is the top priority action. This ensures that any immediate issues with breathing or oxygenation are identified and managed promptly. Respiratory status can quickly deteriorate in patients with heart failure, and addressing this first can be life-saving.

Choice B reason: Drawing blood to assess the patient's serum electrolytes is important to determine any imbalances that need immediate correction. Electrolyte levels can affect heart function and overall stability, so understanding the patient's current status helps guide further treatment.

Choice C reason: Administering the prescribed intravenous furosemide (Lasix) is critical for managing fluid overload in heart failure. Furosemide helps reduce fluid retention and alleviate symptoms such as pulmonary edema, which can improve respiratory status and overall comfort.

Choice D reason: Asking the patient about an advanced directive is important for understanding their wishes and planning care accordingly. However, it is not an immediate priority compared to stabilizing the patient's respiratory status and addressing urgent medical needs.

A. Analgesic properties without sedation. B. Vasoconstriction and improved blood flow. C. Platelet inhibition to reduce clot formation. D. Cardiotonic properties and improved contraction.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Choice A reason: Aspirin does have analgesic properties, which help relieve pain. However, this is not the primary reason for its administration in the context of angina-like chest pain. The analgesic effect of aspirin without sedation is more relevant in the management of general pain or headaches.

Choice B reason: Vasoconstriction and improved blood flow are not effects of aspirin. In fact, aspirin's mechanism of action involves preventing platelet aggregation, which can indirectly improve blood flow by reducing the risk of clot formation. Vasoconstriction is not an effect associated with aspirin.

Choice C reason: The primary rationale for administering aspirin to a client with angina-like chest pain is its antiplatelet effect. Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation, reducing the risk of clot formation. This is crucial in preventing further blockage of coronary arteries, which can exacerbate angina or lead to myocardial infarction.

Choice D reason: Cardiotonic properties and improved contraction are not associated with aspirin. Cardiotonic drugs enhance the strength of the heart's contractions, which is not an action of aspirin. Aspirin's role in this context is to prevent platelet aggregation and reduce the risk of clot-related complications.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse admits a patient who is experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure. Drag and drop in order of priority actions.

Correct Answer is C,D,A,B

Explanation

The nurse correlates which rationale with the administration of aspirin to the client experiencing angina-like chest pain?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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