A nurse performs Homans maneuver by flexing the knee and sharply dorsiflexing the foot. What response indicates a positive Homans sign?
Cramping of the toes
Blanching of the sole
Resisting dorsiflexion
Pain in the calf area .
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A rationale
Cramping of the toes is not typically associated with a positive Homans sign. Homans sign is a test used to check for deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a blood clot in a deep vein of the leg. While cramping can occur with DVT, it is not specific to this condition and can occur with many other conditions.
Choice B rationale
Blanching of the sole is not associated with a positive Homans sign. Blanching, or whitening of the skin, can occur with various conditions, but it is not a typical sign of DVT45.
Choice C rationale
Resisting dorsiflexion is not a typical response indicating a positive Homans sign. While pain or resistance during dorsiflexion of the foot can occur with various conditions, it is not a specific sign of DVT45.
Choice D rationale
Pain in the calf area during dorsiflexion of the foot (Homans sign) can indicate a positive sign for DVT. However, it’s important to note that Homans sign is not a reliable or definitive test for DVT. Other diagnostic tests, such as ultrasound, are needed to confirm the diagnosis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale
A 59-year-old patient with unstable angina who has just returned from a percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) should be prioritized for assessment. PCI is a procedure to open blocked or narrowed coronary arteries and can lead to complications such as re-occlusion of the artery or bleeding from the catheter insertion site. Furthermore, unstable angina is a condition that can progress to myocardial infarction if not managed effectively.
Choice B rationale
A 56-year-old patient with variant angina due to receive nifedipine (Procardia) requires monitoring, but is not the highest priority. Variant angina is a form of angina that occurs at rest, often with severe pain, but it is usually well-controlled with medications like nifedipine.
Choice C rationale
A 65-year-old patient who had a myocardial infarction (MI) 4 days ago and is anxious about discharge planned for today is a lower priority for assessment. While it’s important to address the patient’s anxiety and provide education about post-discharge care, this patient is not in immediate danger.
Choice D rationale
A 39-year-old patient with pericarditis complaining of sharp, stabbing chest pain requires assessment, but is not the highest priority. Pericarditis is inflammation of the pericardium, the sac-like covering of the heart, and while it can cause severe pain, it is not typically life- threatening.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While obesity can contribute to hypertension and other cardiovascular diseases, it is not a contraindication for the use of propranolol. Weight management would be part of the overall treatment plan for hypertension, but it would not prevent the use of this medication.
Choice B rationale
Age is not a contraindication for the use of propranolol. While older adults may be more susceptible to certain side effects of the medication, age alone would not prevent a patient from taking propranolol.
Choice C rationale
Diabetes is a contraindication for the use of propranolol. Propranolol is a non-selective beta- blocker, which can mask symptoms of hypoglycemia, a common condition in people with diabetes. Therefore, it’s generally not recommended for people with diabetes.
Choice D rationale
Race is not a contraindication for the use of propranolol. While there are some differences in how people of different races may respond to certain medications, race alone would not prevent a patient from taking propranolol.
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