A nurse is teaching a client who has a prescription for sumatriptan to treat migraines. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
Start taking sumatriptan at the onset of pain.
Elevate the head while lying down to prevent hypotension.
Eat a meal before taking sumatriptan.
Expect peak analgesia to occur 6 hr after administration.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Starting sumatriptan at the onset of migraine pain is correct because the medication works best when taken early in the migraine attack. Sumatriptan is a serotonin receptor agonist that causes vasoconstriction of cranial blood vessels and reduces neurogenic inflammation. Early administration maximizes effectiveness and prevents progression of the migraine.
Choice B reason: Elevating the head while lying down to prevent hypotension is incorrect. Sumatriptan does not typically cause hypotension; instead, it can cause vasoconstriction and increase blood pressure. Elevating the head is not a recommended teaching point for this medication.
Choice C reason: Eating a meal before taking sumatriptan is unnecessary. The medication can be taken with or without food, and food intake does not affect its absorption or effectiveness.
Choice D reason: Expecting peak analgesia at 6 hr is incorrect. Sumatriptan has a rapid onset of action, with peak effects occurring within 1 to 2 hr. Waiting 6 hr would delay relief and misinform the client.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: The prescription "Atropine .4 mg IV stat" is incorrect because it uses a leading decimal without a zero before the decimal point. This can lead to medication errors, as ".4 mg" could be misread as "4 mg." Correct documentation should be "Atropine 0.4 mg IV stat." Therefore, this option is unsafe and incorrect.
Choice B reason: The prescription "Lorazapam 1.0 mg IV PRN every 6 hr" is incorrect because it uses a trailing zero after the decimal point. Trailing zeros increase the risk of misinterpretation (e.g., "1.0 mg" could be misread as "10 mg"). Correct documentation should be "Lorazepam 1 mg IV PRN every 6 hr." This option is incorrect due to unsafe formatting.
Choice C reason: The prescription "Sucralfate 1 g PO 1 hr ac" is correct. It specifies the medication, dose, route, and timing clearly. "PO" indicates oral administration, and "1 hr ac" means one hour before meals, which is the appropriate timing for sucralfate to coat the stomach lining. This option is the correct answer because it follows proper documentation standards.
Choice D reason: The prescription "Enoxaparin 30 mg SC every 12 hr" is incorrect because the abbreviation "SC" for subcutaneous is discouraged. The preferred abbreviation is "subcut" or "subcutaneous" to avoid confusion with "SL" (sublingual). Therefore, this option is not considered correct documentation.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Absence of urine ketones is expected in hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state (HHS). Unlike diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), HHS does not involve significant ketone production because insulin levels are usually sufficient to prevent lipolysis and ketogenesis.
Choice B reason: Blood glucose levels in HHS are extremely elevated, often exceeding 600 mg/dL. A value of 685 mg/dL is consistent with this condition and reflects the severe hyperglycemia that drives osmotic diuresis and dehydration.
Choice C reason: A BUN of 8 mg/dL is within normal range and would not be expected in HHS. Typically, BUN is elevated due to dehydration and reduced renal perfusion. Therefore, this finding is not consistent with HHS.
Choice D reason: Fruity breath odor is characteristic of diabetic ketoacidosis due to acetone accumulation from ketone metabolism. It is not expected in HHS, which lacks significant ketosis.
Choice E reason: Dehydration is a hallmark of HHS. Severe hyperglycemia causes osmotic diuresis, leading to profound fluid loss, hemoconcentration, and electrolyte imbalance.
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