A nurse is suctioning the endotracheal tube of a client on mechanical ventilation.
During suctioning, the client's heart rate increases from 86/min to 110/min and becomes irregular. Oxygen saturation drops from 96 What is the priority nursing action?
Discontinue suctioning and administer 100
Continue suctioning to clear the airway.
Notify the provider of the change in heart rhythm.
Administer prescribed antiarrhythmic medication.
The Correct Answer is A
Endotracheal suctioning carries risks of hypoxia and vagal stimulation. Knowledge of respiratory physiology and emergency protocols is required to recognize when a procedure is causing clinical instability and to prioritize the immediate restoration of oxygenation and cardiac rhythm stability.
Choice A rationale
Tachycardia, arrhythmias, and desaturation during suctioning indicate acute hypoxia and myocardial stress. The nurse must stop the procedure immediately to prevent cardiac arrest and provide 100 percent oxygen to restore alveolar gas exchange and stabilize the heart rate.
Choice B rationale
Continuing the procedure while the patient is experiencing cardiac instability and severe hypoxia is dangerous. Prolonged suctioning increases the risk of further vagal stimulation and worsening hypoxemia, which could lead to fatal arrhythmias or sudden respiratory and cardiac collapse.
Choice C rationale
While the provider needs to be informed, it is not the priority. Immediate life saving intervention, such as stopping suctioning and hyper-oxygenating the client, must occur first to address the physiological distress and prevent further deterioration of the client.
Choice D rationale
Antiarrhythmics are not the first line treatment for suction induced arrhythmias. These rhythm changes are usually a direct result of hypoxia. Correcting the underlying oxygen deficiency by stopping the suction and providing supplemental oxygen usually resolves the tachycardia and irregularity..
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","C","D","G"]
Explanation
Splenic rupture involves internal hemorrhage and peritoneal irritation. Assessing this requires understanding Kehr sign and signs of hypovolemic shock. Knowledge of hemodynamic parameters and abdominal symptoms is essential to identify occult bleeding and impending cardiovascular collapse following trauma.
Choice A rationale
Splenic injury causes blood to accumulate in the peritoneal cavity, leading to abdominal pain and distension. This irritation of the peritoneum is a hallmark sign of internal organ damage following blunt force trauma to the left side.
Choice B rationale
Headaches are not typically associated with splenic injury unless there is concurrent head trauma. While shock can cause lightheadedness, a primary headache is not a specific or supportive clinical indicator for an isolated splenic laceration or rupture.
Choice C rationale
Hypotension occurs as a result of significant internal bleeding and decreased circulating blood volume. Blood pressure falls below the normal systolic range of 90 to 120 mmHg as the body fails to compensate for acute blood loss.
Choice D rationale
Tachycardia is a compensatory mechanism where the heart rate increases above 100 beats per minute to maintain cardiac output during hemorrhage. It is often one of the earliest signs of volume depletion and internal splenic bleeding.
Choice E rationale
Polyuria, or excessive urination, is not a sign of splenic injury or hypovolemia. In fact, blood loss usually leads to oliguria, where urine output drops below 30 mL per hour as the kidneys conserve fluid and sodium.
Choice F rationale
Wide pulse pressure is often seen in conditions like aortic regurgitation or increased intracranial pressure. Splenic rupture causes hypovolemia, which typically results in a narrow pulse pressure as the systolic pressure falls and diastolic pressure stays.
Choice G rationale
Nausea is a common symptom of peritoneal irritation and the systemic response to acute internal bleeding. The presence of blood in the abdominal cavity can stimulate the vagus nerve and gastrointestinal distress, leading to vomiting or nausea.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
This clinical presentation requires applying knowledge of Monro-Kellie doctrine and neurological assessment. Understanding how space-occupying lesions like brain tumors affect intracranial dynamics is vital for identifying life-threatening shifts in pressure that manifest as headache, projectile vomiting, and mental status changes.
Choice A rationale
Migraine headaches typically present with unilateral throbbing pain and photophobia but rarely cause sudden, severe altered consciousness in this context. While painful, they do not explain the acute neurological decline associated with a known intracranial tumor.
Choice B rationale
Dehydration usually presents with tachycardia, poor skin turgor, and hypotension. While it can cause lightheadedness or confusion in extreme cases, it does not typically cause the sudden onset of a severe headache and vomiting seen in neurological emergencies.
Choice C rationale
Increased intracranial pressure results from the tumor mass or associated edema. It compresses brain tissue and blood vessels, leading to the classic triad of headache, vomiting, and altered consciousness, signaling a potential brain herniation and neurological crisis.
Choice D rationale
A gastric ulcer causes epigastric pain and potentially hematemesis if perforated. While vomiting may occur, it is unrelated to sudden neurological changes or severe headaches. This diagnosis fails to address the primary intracranial pathology and accompanying mental deficits.
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