A nurse is speaking with the partner of a client who is beginning treatment for obsessive-compulsive disorder. Which of the following statements by the partner indicates an understanding of the treatment plan?
"For now, we should schedule enough time for my partner to complete rituals."
"I should ignore the stressors that cause my partner to perform the ritualistic behaviors."
"To prevent stress, we should avoid trying to make a schedule for daily activities."
"I should expect my partner to begin exhibiting paranoid behaviors."
The Correct Answer is A
A. "For now, we should schedule enough time for my partner to complete rituals.": Allowing time for ritualistic behaviors during the initial phase of treatment helps reduce anxiety and prevents conflict. Gradual exposure and response prevention can then be implemented therapeutically, supporting adherence to the treatment plan and a structured environment.
B. "I should ignore the stressors that cause my partner to perform the ritualistic behaviors.": Ignoring triggers does not help manage obsessive-compulsive behaviors and may allow anxiety to escalate. Effective treatment involves recognizing triggers and gradually helping the client manage or tolerate them through therapy.
C. "To prevent stress, we should avoid trying to make a schedule for daily activities.": Structured routines are important for clients with OCD to reduce unpredictability and associated anxiety. Avoiding a schedule may worsen symptoms rather than supporting treatment goals.
D. "I should expect my partner to begin exhibiting paranoid behaviors.": Paranoia is not a typical feature of obsessive-compulsive disorder. Expecting paranoid behaviors reflects a misunderstanding of the disorder and does not align with evidence-based treatment planning.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Phenobarbital: Phenobarbital is a barbiturate primarily used for seizure control or sedation. It is not indicated for treating opioid use disorder and does not address opioid withdrawal symptoms or cravings.
B. Buprenorphine: Buprenorphine is a partial opioid agonist used in medication-assisted treatment for opioid use disorder. It reduces cravings and withdrawal symptoms while lowering the risk of misuse, making it a first-line pharmacologic intervention.
C. Chlordiazepoxide: Chlordiazepoxide is a benzodiazepine commonly used to manage alcohol withdrawal. It does not target opioid withdrawal symptoms or aid in long-term opioid use disorder management.
D. Diazepam: Diazepam, another benzodiazepine, is used for anxiety, muscle spasms, or alcohol withdrawal but is not appropriate for treating opioid use disorder. It does not address opioid cravings or withdrawal management.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. "I can encourage my child to think about what they did that allowed this event to happen.": This statement reflects victim-blaming, which can increase the adolescent’s feelings of guilt and shame. It does not provide supportive or therapeutic guidance and may harm the recovery process.
B. "I anticipate that my child will feel some self-blame.": Recognizing that the adolescent may experience self-blame demonstrates understanding and empathy. This approach validates the child’s feelings, provides emotional support, and helps the guardian prepare to respond appropriately, reflecting a positive support system.
C. "I should encourage my child to focus solely on the future.": While future-focused thinking can be helpful eventually, encouraging the adolescent to ignore current emotions may invalidate their feelings and hinder processing the trauma. Supportive care involves acknowledging and addressing present emotions.
D. "I will have to do all I can to monitor my child's relationships.": Over-monitoring can lead to a sense of mistrust and restrict the adolescent’s autonomy. While safety is important, effective support balances protection with empowerment rather than excessive control.
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