A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client who is pregnant and does not consume dairy products. Which of the following food options should the nurse recommend as the best source of dietary calcium?
1 cup kale
1 baked potato
1 large banana
1 cup sweet white corn
The Correct Answer is A
Kale is an excellent non-dairy source of calcium. Dark leafy greens like kale are rich in calcium, with approximately 90 mg of calcium per cup when cooked. Including kale in the diet can help pregnant women meet their calcium needs, especially if they do not consume dairy products.
(B) 1 baked potato:
While potatoes are a source of several nutrients, including potassium and vitamin C, they are not significant sources of calcium. Therefore, a baked potato would not be the best recommendation for meeting calcium needs in a client who does not consume dairy products.
(C) 1 large banana:
Bananas are nutritious fruits containing potassium and vitamin C, but they are not significant sources of calcium. Therefore, while bananas are a healthy food choice during pregnancy, they would not provide sufficient calcium for someone who does not consume dairy products.
(D) 1 cup sweet white corn:
Sweet white corn is a tasty vegetable rich in vitamins and minerals, but it is not a significant source of calcium. Therefore, while it can contribute to overall nutritional intake during pregnancy, it would not be the best recommendation for meeting calcium needs in a client who does not consume dairy products.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
(A) Maternal temperature 36.3°C (101°F):
While maternal temperature elevation can indicate infection, in this scenario, the sudden gush of vaginal fluid takes precedence as it could be indicative of premature rupture of membranes. However, assessing maternal temperature is important for ruling out maternal infection, but it is not the priority manifestation compared to assessing fetal well-being.
(B) Amniotic fluid with meconium noted:
While the presence of meconium in the amniotic fluid is concerning, assessing fetal heart tones is the priority. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid can indicate fetal distress, but the immediate concern is to determine if the fetus is experiencing any compromise or distress by assessing the fetal heart rate.
(C) Fetal heart tones 98/min:
In this scenario, the priority is to assess the well-being of the fetus. Fetal heart tones provide critical information about fetal status, indicating whether the baby is experiencing any distress or compromise. A fetal heart rate of 98 beats per minute (bpm) is within the normal range for a fetus at 34 weeks of gestation. However, any abnormalities or significant deviations from the normal fetal heart rate range may indicate fetal distress, requiring immediate intervention.
(D) Foul-smelling vaginal discharge:
Foul-smelling vaginal discharge can indicate infection, such as chorioamnionitis, which is a concern during pregnancy. However, in this scenario, assessing fetal well-being takes precedence as it is essential to ensure timely interventions to assess and manage any fetal distress.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
(a) "White blood cell count is an indicator of anemia."
A white blood cell (WBC) count is primarily used to assess for infection or inflammation, not anemia. Anemia is typically evaluated by measuring hemoglobin and hematocrit levels, not WBC count. This statement indicates a misunderstanding of the purpose of the WBC count.
(b) "Urine specific gravity identifies my risk for pregnancy induced hypertension."
Urine specific gravity measures the concentration of urine and is used to assess hydration status and kidney function. It does not directly identify the risk for pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH). The presence of protein in the urine (proteinuria) would be more indicative of PIH. This statement indicates a misunderstanding of the purpose of the urine specific gravity test.
(c) "Platelet count identifies if I am at risk for bleeding."
This is the correct statement. A platelet count is used to determine the number of platelets in the blood, which are essential for normal blood clotting. A low platelet count (thrombocytopenia) can indicate an increased risk of bleeding, while a high count (thrombocytosis) can be associated with clotting disorders.
(d) "Sedimentation rate checks for signs of cancer."
The erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) measures how quickly red blood cells settle at the bottom of a test tube. It is a nonspecific test used to detect inflammation in the body. While an elevated ESR can be associated with various conditions, including infections, autoimmune diseases, and cancers, it is not specifically used to check for cancer. This statement indicates a misunderstanding of the purpose of the sedimentation rate test.
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