A nurse is reinforcing teaching with a client about laboratory testing during pregnancy. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
"A Papanicolaou test will be performed to detect the presence of herpes simplex type 1."
"A group B streptococcus screening will be performed to determine the presence of STs."
"A multiple marker screening will be performed to identify neural tube defects."
"A glucose tolerance test will be performed to predict hyperglycemia in your baby"
The Correct Answer is C
(A) "A Papanicolaou test will be performed to detect the presence of herpes simplex type 1."
The Papanicolaou (Pap) test is not performed during pregnancy to detect herpes simplex type 1. The Pap test is a cervical cancer screening test that detects abnormal cervical cells, usually caused by human papillomavirus (HPV) infection or other factors. It is not used to detect herpes simplex type 1.
(B) "A group B streptococcus screening will be performed to determine the presence of STs."
Group B Streptococcus (GBS) screening is performed during pregnancy to detect the presence of GBS bacteria in the mother's genital and rectal areas. GBS is a common bacteria that can cause serious infections in newborns if passed from the mother during childbirth. GBS screening is not related to sexually transmitted infections (STIs).
(C) "A multiple marker screening will be performed to identify neural tube defects."
Multiple marker screening, also known as maternal serum screening or quad screen, is a routine prenatal test performed between 15 and 20 weeks of gestation. It helps identify the risk of certain chromosomal abnormalities, including neural tube defects like spina bifida and anencephaly. This screening measures the levels of certain proteins in the mother's blood to assess the risk of these birth defects.
(D) "A glucose tolerance test will be performed to predict hyperglycemia in your baby."
A glucose tolerance test (GTT) is performed during pregnancy to diagnose gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM), a condition characterized by high blood sugar levels during pregnancy. The purpose of the GTT is to identify maternal hyperglycemia, which can lead to complications for both the mother and the baby. The test is not performed to predict hyperglycemia specifically in the baby.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
(A) "White blood cell count is an indicator of anemia.”
White blood cell count is not directly related to anemia. Anemia is typically assessed by hemoglobin and hematocrit levels, which reflect the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood. White blood cell count measures immune system function and can indicate infection or inflammation rather than anemia.
(B) "Urine specific gravity identifies my risk for pregnancy induced hypertension.”
Urine specific gravity is a measure of urine concentration and hydration status, and it is not typically used to identify the risk of pregnancy-induced hypertension (preeclampsia). Preeclampsia is diagnosed based on symptoms such as hypertension (high blood pressure) and proteinuria (protein in the urine), along with other criteria.
(C) "Platelet count identifies if I am at risk for bleeding.”
Platelet count is a laboratory test that measures the number of platelets in the blood. Platelets are essential for blood clotting, so a low platelet count (thrombocytopenia) can indicate an increased risk of bleeding, which is pertinent to pregnancy, especially in cases of conditions like gestational thrombocytopenia or preeclampsia.
(D) "Sedimentation rate checks for signs of cancer.”
The sedimentation rate (ESR or sed rate) is a nonspecific test that measures inflammation in the body, but it is not used to check for signs of cancer specifically. Elevated sedimentation rate can indicate various inflammatory conditions such as infection, autoimmune diseases, or chronic inflammatory disorders. It is not a primary test for cancer diagnosis.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
(A) "You should recognize that your baby sucking on his hands is a hunger cue."
Recognizing hunger cues is crucial for successful breastfeeding. Early hunger cues like sucking on hands, rooting, and lip-smacking indicate that the baby is ready to feed. Responding to these cues can help establish a good breastfeeding routine and ensure the baby gets adequate nutrition before becoming too distressed to feed effectively.
(B) "You should feed your baby for 10 minutes on each breast."
Feeding duration can vary significantly among babies. Some may need longer than 10 minutes on each breast, while others might feed more efficiently in a shorter time. Instead of a strict time limit, it's important to encourage the mother to allow the baby to feed until they show signs of being full, such as pulling away from the breast or falling asleep.
(C) "You should feed your baby six times a day."
Newborns typically need to feed more frequently than six times a day. Most newborns breastfeed 8-12 times in 24 hours. Limiting feeds to six times a day may not provide sufficient nutrition and can affect the baby’s growth and milk supply.
(D) "You should wake your baby at least every 6 hours at night for feedings."
Newborns, especially in the first few weeks, often need to be fed more frequently than every 6 hours, including at night. Typically, it’s recommended to wake a baby to feed if they sleep for more than 4 hours at a time in the early weeks to ensure adequate intake and to help establish the mother’s milk supply.
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