A nurse is preparing a client for an electroencephalogram (EEG). When the client asks what the purpose of the procedure is, what is the nurse's best response?
"The procedure can help determine whether your stroke was caused by a clot or by bleeding
The procedure can help identify which part of the brain seizure activity is coming from.
"The procedure helps evaluate nerve function to your extremities
The procedure shows images of your heart’s electrical activity.'
The Correct Answer is B
A) "The procedure can help determine whether your stroke was caused by a clot or by bleeding": This statement is incorrect. An electroencephalogram (EEG) is a diagnostic test used to evaluate the electrical activity of the brain, not to assess stroke-related causes. To determine whether a stroke was caused by a clot or bleeding, imaging studies like a CT scan or MRI are typically used, not an EEG.
B) "The procedure can help identify which part of the brain seizure activity is coming from": This is the correct response. An EEG records electrical activity in the brain and is primarily used to diagnose and monitor conditions such as seizures, epilepsy, and sleep disorders. It can help pinpoint the area of the brain where abnormal electrical activity, such as that seen in seizures, is originating. This makes it an invaluable tool for understanding seizure disorders.
C) "The procedure helps evaluate nerve function to your extremities": This statement is inaccurate. An EEG does not assess nerve function to the extremities. Tests like nerve conduction studies or electromyography (EMG) are used to evaluate peripheral nerve function, whereas an EEG specifically measures electrical activity in the brain.
D) "The procedure shows images of your heart’s electrical activity": This statement is incorrect. An EEG measures brain electrical activity, not the heart's. To assess the heart's electrical activity, an electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG) is used. Therefore, an EEG and an ECG serve very different purposes.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) Check the identifying information on the unit of blood against the patient’s ID bracelet:
This is the highest priority to ensure patient safety before beginning a transfusion. The risk of transfusion reactions, including hemolytic reactions due to mismatched blood, makes verifying patient identification critical. The nurse must match the blood product with the patient’s information and confirm that the blood product is correct for the patient. This verification is typically done with a second nurse to ensure safety. If the blood is mismatched, it can lead to severe, potentially life-threatening consequences.
B) Stay with the patient for 60 minutes after starting the transfusion:
While it is important to stay with the patient during the transfusion and monitor for adverse reactions, the highest priority before starting the transfusion is verifying patient and blood product compatibility. After starting the transfusion, staying with the patient for the first 15 minutes is critical for monitoring for early signs of a transfusion reaction, but this action occurs after the blood has been correctly matched and started.
C) Add the blood transfusion as a secondary line to the existing IV:
Ensuring proper identification and blood product matching is more critical than deciding whether to use a secondary IV line. The nurse should verify patient and blood compatibility first and then proceed with setting up the IV line for transfusion.
D) Prime new primary IV tubing with lactated Ringer's solution to use for the transfusion:
Priming IV tubing with lactated Ringer’s solution is incorrect for a blood transfusion. Blood should only be administered with normal saline, as other fluids, including lactated Ringer's solution, can cause clotting or hemolysis when mixed with blood products. This action would not be a safe or appropriate step in preparing for a blood transfusion. The correct solution to prime tubing for blood transfusions is normal saline, and this is secondary to ensuring proper patient identification and blood compatibility.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A) Strains are associated with fractured bone that are tearing blood vessels:
Strains refer to injuries of muscles or tendons due to overuse, overstretching, or tearing. A strain does not typically involve fractured bones or tearing blood vessels. Sprains, on the other hand, involve ligaments, not muscles or tendons, and may or may not involve fractures or tearing of blood vessels.
B) "A strain should be treated with heat in the first 24 hours then ice after:
. The general recommendation for the initial treatment of a strain (and sprain) is rest, ice, compression, and elevation (R.I.C.E.) within the first 24-48 hours. Ice should be applied during this period to reduce swelling and inflammation, not heat. Heat may be used after the first 48 hours to promote healing and reduce muscle stiffness, but it should not be used during the acute phase of the injury.
C) A sprain involves stretching or tearing or tearing of ligaments at a joint:
This is the correct statement. A sprain is an injury to a ligament, which is the tissue connecting bones to other bones. It is typically caused by stretching, overextension, or tearing of the ligament, often resulting from a sudden or awkward movement at a joint. Sprains commonly occur at areas such as the ankle, knee, and wrist.
D) A sprain involves tearing of a muscle body or tendon:
. A sprain involves damage to a ligament, not a muscle or tendon. Damage to muscles or tendons is classified as a strain, not a sprain. Strains refer to overuse or tearing of muscle fibers or tendons, not ligaments.
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