A nurse is caring for two patients who had a coronary artery stent placed yesterday.
What medication should the nurse expect to administer based on the patients’ daily medication administration record?
Clopidogrel
Ibuprofen
Dipyridamole
Acetaminophen
Acetaminophen
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that is essential for preventing blood clots from forming within coronary artery stents. It works by inhibiting the binding of adenosine diphosphate (ADP) to its receptors on platelets, thereby reducing platelet aggregation. This is crucial following stent placement because the stent itself can act as a trigger for platelet activation and clotting. By suppressing platelet function, clopidogrel helps to maintain blood flow through the stented artery and reduces the risk of stent thrombosis, a potentially life-threatening complication.
Here's a detailed explanation of why the other choices are incorrect:
Choice B: Ibuprofen
Ibuprofen is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that is primarily used to treat pain and inflammation.
It does not have significant antiplatelet effects and is not typically used for the prevention of stent thrombosis.
While it might be prescribed for pain management after stent placement, it would not be the primary medication expected on the daily medication administration record for this purpose.
Choice C: Dipyridamole
Dipyridamole is an antiplatelet medication, but it is not as potent as clopidogrel and is not considered the first-line agent for preventing stent thrombosis.
It might be used in combination with clopidogrel in certain cases, but it would not be the sole antiplatelet medication expected on the daily medication administration record.
Choice D: Acetaminophen
Acetaminophen is a pain reliever and fever reducer.
It does not have any antiplatelet effects and would not be used to prevent stent thrombosis.
It might be prescribed for pain or fever after stent placement, but it would not be the primary medication expected on the daily medication administration record for this purpose.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Calling "all clear" once before discharging the defibrillator is crucial for safety, but it's not the primary action that ensures effective defibrillation.
The purpose of calling "all clear" is to alert everyone in the vicinity to stay clear of the patient and avoid accidental shock.
However, even with a clear announcement, it's essential for the nurse to visually confirm that no one is touching the patient or bed before discharging the defibrillator.
Choice B rationale:
Maintaining firm contact between the paddles and the client's skin is essential for delivering the defibrillation shock effectively.
Here's a detailed breakdown of why this contact is so critical:
Maximizes energy transfer: Firm contact minimizes the impedance (resistance) between the paddles and the skin, allowing for the maximum amount of electrical energy to be transferred to the heart.
Reduces arcing: Arcing occurs when electrical energy jumps through the air instead of passing through the intended path (between the paddles and the heart). This can cause skin burns and reduce the effectiveness of the shock. Firm contact helps prevent arcing by ensuring a direct connection.
Ensures consistent current flow: Consistent contact ensures that the electrical current flows evenly across the chest, reaching all areas of the heart muscle. This increases the likelihood of successful defibrillation.
Minimizes energy loss: Any gaps or poor contact between the paddles and skin can lead to energy loss, reducing the shock's strength and effectiveness.
Choice C rationale:
Sync mode (synchronized cardioversion) is used for specific heart rhythm disturbances, such as atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter, where the shock needs to be timed with the QRS complex on the ECG.
Ventricular fibrillation, however, is a chaotic rhythm without distinct QRS complexes, so sync mode is not appropriate.
Using sync mode in ventricular fibrillation could delay the shock and potentially decrease its effectiveness.
Choice D rationale:
Water is not an appropriate conducting agent for defibrillation.
It can actually increase the risk of burns and decrease the effectiveness of the shock.
Approved conducting agents, such as gel pads or paste, should be used to ensure optimal energy transfer and patient safety.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Digoxin is a medication that slows the heart rate. It would be contraindicated in this patient because they are already bradycardic.
Administering digoxin could further slow the heart rate and worsen the patient's symptoms.
Additionally, digoxin can have a negative inotropic effect, which could further compromise the patient's hemodynamic status. Choice B rationale:
While it is important to continue to monitor the patient, this is not an intervention that will address the patient's bradycardia and hypotension.
The patient is already symptomatic, and their heart rate and blood pressure are likely to continue to decline without intervention. Choice C rationale:
Defibrillation is used to treat life-threatening arrhythmias such as ventricular fibrillation and pulseless ventricular tachycardia.
It is not indicated for sinus bradycardia.
Choice D rationale:
Transcutaneous pacing is a non-invasive method of pacing the heart.
It can be used to temporarily increase the heart rate in patients with symptomatic bradycardia.
This is the most appropriate intervention for this patient because it will address the underlying problem of bradycardia and improve the patient's hemodynamic status.
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