A nurse is caring for a patient who has rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following laboratory tests are used to diagnose the disease? (Select all that apply)
Antinuclear antibody (ANA) titer
BUN
Urinalysis
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)
White blood cell count
Correct Answer : A,D,E
Choice A rationale:
Antinuclear antibody (ANA) titer is a blood test that detects the presence of antinuclear antibodies, which are autoantibodies that target the body's own tissues. These antibodies are often present in people with autoimmune diseases, including rheumatoid arthritis.
While a positive ANA test does not definitively diagnose rheumatoid arthritis, it can support a diagnosis when considered alongside other clinical findings and laboratory tests.

Choice B rationale:
Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is a blood test that measures the amount of urea nitrogen in the blood. Urea nitrogen is a waste product that is produced when the body breaks down proteins.
BUN levels can be elevated in people with kidney disease, dehydration, or certain other medical conditions. However, BUN is not specifically used to diagnose rheumatoid arthritis.
Choice C rationale:
Urinalysis is a test that examines the urine for various substances, including cells, bacteria, and chemicals.
It can be used to diagnose a variety of conditions, including urinary tract infections, kidney disease, and diabetes. However, urinalysis is not typically used to diagnose rheumatoid arthritis.
Choice D rationale:
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a blood test that measures how quickly red blood cells settle at the bottom of a test tube.
A high ESR can indicate inflammation in the body.
ESR is often elevated in people with rheumatoid arthritis, as it is a marker of inflammation.
Choice E rationale:
White blood cell count (WBC) is a blood test that measures the number of white blood cells in the blood. White blood cells are part of the immune system and help fight infection.
A high WBC count can indicate an infection or inflammation.
WBC count can be elevated in people with rheumatoid arthritis, as it is a marker of inflammation.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Iron supplements Iron supplements are commonly used to treat or prevent iron deficiency anemia. While beneficial in relieving iron deficiency, iron pills can cause side effects like constipation, diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, dark stools, stomach cramps, and a metallic taste. However, constipation is not the primary side effect of iron supplements.
Choice B rationale:
Magnesium-containing antacids Magnesium-containing antacids are used to relieve the symptoms of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), heartburn, or indigestion. By neutralizing stomach acid, antacids relieve symptoms such as burning behind the breast bone or throat area caused by acid reflux, a bitter taste in the mouth, a persistent dry cough, pain when lying down, or regurgitation. While these antacids can cause diarrhea, they do not typically lead to constipation.
Choice C rationale:
Anticholinergics/Antispasmodics Anticholinergics and antispasmodics are used to relieve cramps or spasms of the stomach, intestines, and bladder. Some are used together with antacids or other medicines in the treatment of peptic ulcers. Others are used to prevent nausea, vomiting, and motion sickness. While these medications can cause a variety of side effects, constipation is not a primary side effect.
Choice D rationale:
Opioid narcotics Opioids, also known as narcotics, are a class of drugs healthcare providers prescribe to manage moderate to severe pain, as well as chronic coughing and diarrhea. Common side effects of narcotics include constipation, decreased sweating, dizziness, dry mouth, nose, throat, or skin. Therefore, opioid narcotics are the medication most likely to lead to constipation among the options provided.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
The statement “The pulse oximeter may not be accurate during periods of excessive movement” is correct. Pulse oximeters measure the amount of oxygen in the blood by shining light through the skin, and movement can cause the light to scatter, leading to inaccurate readings.
Choice B rationale:
The statement “We will inform the doctor if the pulse oximeter consistently reads 100%” indicates further instruction is needed. A pulse oximeter reading of 100% is not necessarily a cause for concern. It simply means that the hemoglobin is fully saturated with oxygen. However, if the oxygen level is consistently at 100%, it could indicate that the oxygen flow is too high and needs to be adjusted. It’s important to follow the healthcare provider’s instructions regarding the desired oxygen saturation level for the infant.
Choice C rationale:
The statement “The probe of the pulse oximeter can be attached to a finger or a toe” is correct. The probe of a pulse oximeter can indeed be attached to a finger, toe, or even an earlobe. The important thing is that it’s attached to a part of the body with good blood flow. Choice D rationale:
The statement “We will move the probe of the pulse oximeter every 24 hours” is correct. It’s important to move the probe periodically to prevent skin damage, such as pressure sores or burns, especially in infants who have delicate skin.
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