A nurse is caring for a female client who is in the fourth stage of labor in the postpartum unit.
Complete the following sentence by using the list of options.
The nurse should first monitor the client’s
The Correct Answer is {"dropdown-group-1":"B","dropdown-group-2":"A"}
The nurse should first monitor the client’s fundal tone followed by the client’s heart rate.
Rationale for correct answers
Fundal tone is the primary indicator of uterine contractility. A boggy fundus that does not firm with massage indicates uterine atony, the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage (PPH). Effective uterine contraction compresses uterine blood vessels to reduce bleeding. Monitoring fundal tone allows early identification of hemorrhage risk. Heart rate is a sensitive early sign of hypovolemia; a rising heart rate (tachycardia above 100 beats/min) reflects compensatory response to blood loss before blood pressure drops. Normal adult heart rate ranges from 60 to 100 beats/min; an increase indicates circulatory stress.
Rationale for incorrect answers
Bruising to perineal area (A) is important but secondary; it does not directly assess bleeding severity or uterine status. Pain level (C) is subjective and can be influenced by many factors; it does not reliably indicate hemorrhage. Uterine height (D) measures fundal location but does not assess firmness or tone, which are critical for detecting atony. Temperature (B) changes are not immediate indicators of bleeding. Pain level (C) and uterine height (D) similarly lack specificity for hemorrhage assessment compared to fundal tone and heart rate.
Take home points
- Fundal tone assessment is critical for early detection of uterine atony causing postpartum hemorrhage.
- Tachycardia is an early physiological sign of hypovolemia and should be closely monitored.
- Perineal bruising and pain are secondary findings and less specific to hemorrhage severity.
- Uterine height and temperature changes do not reliably indicate acute hemorrhage status.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E","F"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale: Tocolytic medications such as terbutaline, a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, commonly cause nervous system stimulation, leading to side effects like jitteriness, tremors, and anxiety. This occurs because beta-2 receptor activation increases sympathetic nervous system activity, resulting in heightened neuromuscular excitability. These symptoms are transient and expected during therapy, reflecting systemic beta-2 receptor effects beyond uterine muscle relaxation.
Choice B rationale: Terbutaline and similar beta-2 agonist tocolytics increase heart rate by stimulating beta-adrenergic receptors in cardiac tissue. This causes positive chronotropic effects, increasing the rate of sinoatrial node firing. Tachycardia is a common adverse effect and is closely monitored as excessive cardiac stimulation can precipitate arrhythmias, especially in clients with underlying cardiac conditions.
Choice C rationale: Tocolytics like terbutaline typically do not increase blood pressure; in fact, beta-2 agonists cause vasodilation leading to decreased peripheral vascular resistance and often lower blood pressure. An increase in blood pressure is not a typical pharmacologic effect and would be unusual. Hypertensive responses are more commonly associated with other drug classes, such as alpha-agonists or corticosteroids.
Choice D rationale: The primary pharmacologic goal of tocolytics is to relax uterine smooth muscle by decreasing intracellular calcium levels, thus inhibiting contractions. Terbutaline, as a beta-2 agonist, activates adenylate cyclase increasing cAMP, which reduces contractility. Therefore, a decrease in contraction frequency and intensity is an expected therapeutic outcome.
Choice E rationale: Terbutaline is commonly administered subcutaneously, allowing for rapid absorption and onset of action. The subcutaneous route facilitates outpatient administration and easy titration of doses. Intramuscular or intravenous routes are less frequently used for this medication in preterm labor management. Patient education on injection technique and site care is essential to prevent complications.
Choice F rationale: Headaches can occur as a side effect of tocolytic therapy due to systemic vasodilation and fluid shifts. The medication-induced relaxation of vascular smooth muscle can cause mild cerebral vasodilation, leading to headaches. This side effect is generally manageable but should be monitored to differentiate from more serious adverse reactions.
Choice G rationale: Reflex monitoring is not a standard requirement for beta-2 agonist tocolytics like terbutaline. Reflex checks are more relevant for magnesium sulfate therapy, which can cause neuromuscular blockade and require frequent deep tendon reflex assessments to avoid toxicity. Therefore, frequent reflex monitoring is not indicated with terbutaline.
Correct Answer is ["C","D"]
Explanation
Choice C rationale
The client is tachycardic and has cool skin, indicating potential hypovolemia or shock due to excessive bleeding. Administering oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula increases oxygen delivery to the tissues, improving cellular oxygenation and mitigating the effects of decreased circulating blood volume. This supports vital organ function and helps address tissue hypoxia, a common consequence of significant blood loss. Normal heart rate postpartum is 60-100 beats per minute.
Choice D rationale
Oxytocin is a uterotonic agent that stimulates uterine contractions. A boggy uterus and excessive bleeding are hallmark signs of uterine atony, the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage. Initiating an infusion of oxytocin will promote uterine contraction, which compresses blood vessels and reduces blood loss, thereby addressing the underlying cause of the client's symptoms and preventing further hemorrhage. Normal lochia should be moderate in amount.
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