A nurse is caring for a client who received verapamil 1 hr ago and now has a blood pressure of 80/54 mm Hg. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
Administer a bolus of IV fluids.
Administer a dose of IV diphenhydramine.
Administer supplemental oxygen.
Position the client's legs in a dependent position.
The Correct Answer is A
A. Hypotension following verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can be managed with IV fluid boluses to support blood pressure.
B. Diphenhydramine treats allergic reactions, not hypotension.
C. Oxygen may be given, but fluids are the priority to restore BP.
D. Positioning legs may help slightly, but fluids directly address the cause.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Sodium is not directly related to the effectiveness of epoetin alfa, which stimulates red blood cell production.
B. WBC count is not the primary marker for evaluating epoetin alfa therapy.
C. Glucose is not a key indicator of epoetin alfa effectiveness.
D. Hemoglobin is the key indicator because epoetin alfa is used to stimulate red blood cell production in clients with anemia due to chronic renal failure. The goal is to increase hemoglobin levels.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Output above 30 mL/hr is acceptable and not concerning.
B. A BP of 122/88 is within normal limits.
C. A decrease in deep tendon reflexes (DTRs), such as 1+, can indicate magnesium toxicity and requires immediate intervention.
D. Normal pupillary findings do not indicate toxicity.
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