A nurse is caring for a client who is at 40 weeks gestation and is in active labor. The client has 6 cm of cervical dilation and 100% cervical effacement. The nurse obtains the client's blood pressure reading as 82/52 mm Hg. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse perform?

Assist the client to turn onto her side.

Prepare for an immediate vaginal delivery.

Prepare for a cesarean birth.

Assist the client to an upright position.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Assist the client to turn onto her side. This is the correct answer because turning the client onto her side can improve blood flow to the placenta and increase fetal oxygenation. Hypotension is a common cause of decreased uteroplacental perfusion, which can lead to fetal distress and late decelerations on the fetal monitor. The nurse should also administer oxygen, increase IV fluids, and notify the provider. • Choice B reason:

Prepare for an immediate vaginal delivery. This is not the correct answer because there is no indication that the client is ready for delivery. The client has 6 cm of cervical dilation, which means she is still in the active phase of labor. The second stage of labor begins when the cervix is fully dilated (10 cm) and ends with delivery of the baby. Preparing for an immediate vaginal delivery would not address the cause of hypotension or improve fetal oxygenation. • Choice C reason:

Prepare for a cesarean birth. This is not the correct answer because there is no indication that the client needs a cesarean birth. A cesarean birth may be indicated if there are signs of fetal compromise, such as severe variable or late decelerations, or maternal complications, such as placenta previa or cord prolapse. However, these conditions are not present in this scenario. Preparing for a cesarean birth would not address the cause of hypotension or improve fetal oxygenation. • Choice D reason:

Assist the client to an upright position. This is not the correct answer because placing the client in an upright position can worsen hypotension and decrease uteroplacental perfusion. An upright position can increase pressure on the inferior vena cava and reduce venous return to the heart. This can lower cardiac output.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The correct answer is c. Dehydration. A significantly indented anterior fontanelle in a newborn is most commonly a sign of dehydration.

Choice A reason:

Increased intracranial pressure: This statement is incorrect because increased intracranial pressure typically causes a bulging, not indented, fontanelle. Symptoms include irritability, vomiting, and a high-pitched cry.

Choice B reason:

Vernix caseosa: This statement is incorrect because vernix caseosa is a white, cheesy substance covering the skin of newborns, unrelated to fontanelle indentation. It serves as a protective layer for the baby’s skin.

Choice C reason:

Dehydration: This statement is correct. Dehydration in newborns can cause a sunken fontanelle due to the loss of fluid. Other signs include dry mouth, sunken eyes, and fewer wet diapers.

Choice D reason:

Cyanosis: This statement is incorrect because cyanosis refers to a bluish discoloration of the skin due to lack of oxygen, not related to fontanelle shape. It indicates issues with oxygenation or circulation.

A. A woman in early labor with contractions every 5 minutes lasting 40 seconds each. B. A woman in active labor with contractions every 30 minutes lasting 60 seconds each. C. A woman in active labor with contractions every 2 to 3 minutes lasting 70 to 80 seconds each. D. A woman in transition with contractions every 1.5 minutes lasting 95 seconds each.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason:

The woman in early labor with contractions every 5 minutes lasting 40 seconds each does not require the immediate discontinuation of the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion. Early labor is characterized by mild and infrequent contractions as the cervix begins to dilate and efface. Choice B reason:

The woman in active labor with contractions every 30 minutes lasting 60 seconds each also does not warrant immediate discontinuation of the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion. Active labor typically involves regular and stronger contractions as the cervix continues to dilate and the baby progresses downward.

Choice C reason:

The woman in active labor with contractions every 2 to 3 minutes lasting 70 to 80 seconds each does not require immediate cessation of the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion. These contractions are within the expected range for active labor and may be considered normal.

Choice D reason:

The woman in transition with contractions every 1.5 minutes lasting 95 seconds each should have the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion discontinued immediately. Transition is the most intense phase of labor, characterized by rapid and strong contractions as the cervix completes dilation. Prolonged and frequent contractions during this phase can lead to uterine hyperstimulation, which can compromise fetal oxygenation and result in fetal distress. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion is necessary to reduce the intensity and frequency of contractions, ensuring better fetal well-being during this critical phase of labor.

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A nurse is caring for a client who is at 40 weeks gestation and is in active labor. The client has 6 cm of cervical dilation and 100% cervical effacement. The nurse obtains the client's blood pressure reading as 82/52 mm Hg. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse perform?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse notices while holding him upright that a 1-day-old newborn has a significantly indented anterior fontanelle. She immediately brings it to the attention of the physician. What does this finding most likely indicate?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

For which patient should the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion be discontinued immediately?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

While assisting with a vacuum extraction birth, what should the nurse immediately report to the physician?

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