A nurse is caring for a client who has end-stage kidney disease.
The client’s adult child asks the nurse about becoming a living kidney donor for their parent.
Which of the following conditions in the child’s medical history should the nurse identify as a contraindication to the procedure?
Osteoarthritis.
Primary glaucoma.
Hypertension.
Amputation.
Amputation.
The Correct Answer is C
Hypertension is a contraindication to living kidney donation because it can increase the risk of kidney disease and cardiovascular complications in the donor. Hypertension can also affect the quality and survival of the donated kidney in the recipient.
Therefore, a potential donor with uncontrolled or poorly controlled hypertension should not undergo a nephrectomy.
Choice A, osteoarthritis, is not a contraindication to living kidney donation.
Osteoarthritis is a degenerative joint disease that does not affect the kidneys or the cardiovascular system.
It may cause pain and stiffness in the joints, but it can be managed with medications and physical therapy. A potential donor with osteoarthritis can donate a kidney if they have normal kidney function and no other medical problems.
Choice B, primary glaucoma, is not a contraindication to living kidney donation.
Primary glaucoma is a condition that causes increased pressure in the eye and can lead to vision loss if untreated.
It does not affect the kidneys or the cardiovascular system. A potential donor with primary glaucoma can donate a kidney if they have normal kidney function and no other medical problems.
Choice D, amputation, is not a contraindication to living kidney donation.
Amputation is the surgical removal of a limb or part of a limb due to injury, infection, or disease.
It does not affect the kidneys or the cardiovascular system. A potential donor with amputation can donate a kidney if they have normal kidney function and no other medical problems.
Normal ranges for blood pressure are less than 120/80 mmHg for systolic and diastolic pressure, respectively.
Normal ranges for kidney function are eGFR above 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 and albuminuria below 30 mg/g.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choicea. Swelling of the face.
Choice A rationale:
Swelling of the face can be a sign of preeclampsia, a serious condition that requires immediate medical attention.Preeclampsia can lead to complications for both the mother and the baby if not managed properly.
Choice B rationale:
Urinary frequency is a common symptom during pregnancy due to hormonal changes and the growing uterus pressing on the bladder.It is generally not a cause for concern unless accompanied by other symptoms like pain or burning during urination.
Choice C rationale:
Faintness upon rising, also known as orthostatic hypotension, is common in pregnancy due to changes in blood circulation.It can often be managed by rising slowly and ensuring adequate hydration.
Choice D rationale:
Bleeding gums are common during pregnancy due to hormonal changes that increase blood flow to the gums, making them more sensitive and prone to bleeding.Good oral hygiene can help manage this symptom.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
This is because rubella is a highly contagious viral infection that can cause serious harm to the developing fetus if the pregnant person gets infected. Rubella can cause congenital rubella syndrome, which can result in hearing and vision loss, heart defects and other serious conditions in newborns.
Choice A is wrong because aspirin should not be given to children or adolescents with viral infections, as it can cause Reye’s syndrome, a rare but potentially fatal condition that affects the liver and brain.
Choice C is wrong because rubella does not require airborne precautions, which are used for diseases that can spread through very small droplets that can remain in the air for long periods of time, such as tuberculosis or measles. Rubella spreads through direct contact with saliva or mucus of an infected person, or through respiratory droplets from coughing or sneezing.
Therefore, standard and droplet precautions are sufficient to prevent transmission. Choice D is wrong because Koplik spots are a characteristic sign of measles, not rubella.
Koplik spots are small white spots that appear on the inside of the cheeks before the measles rash develops. Rubella causes a pink or red rash that usually starts on the face and moves down the body.
Normal ranges for rubella antibody tests are:
- IgM: Negative or less than 0.9 IU/mL
- IgG: Negative or less than 10 IU/mL
A positive IgM result indicates a recent or current infection, while a positive IgG result indicates a past infection or immunity from vaccination.
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