A nurse is caring for a client in an emergency department (ED).
Which of the following medications should the nurse expect the physician to prescribe for this client?
Select All That Apply
Heparin
Digoxin
Aspirin
Morphine
Dopamine
Correct Answer : A,C,D
An ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) occurs when a coronary artery is completely occluded, leading to transmural myocardial ischemia and necrosis. This medical emergency is identified by specific ECG changes and elevated cardiac biomarkers like Troponin I (> 0.03 ng/mL). Immediate pharmacologic intervention focuses on reperfusion, preventing further thrombus propagation, and reducing myocardial oxygen demand to preserve functional cardiac tissue.
Rationale:
A. Heparin is an anticoagulant indicated in the acute phase of a STEMI to prevent the formation and extension of fibrin clots. By accelerating the action of antithrombin 3, it neutralizes thrombin and factor Xa. This prevents further occlusion of the coronary artery while the patient awaits definitive reperfusion therapy like percutaneous coronary intervention.
B. Digoxin is a positive inotrope and negative chronotrope primarily used for chronic heart failure or atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response. In the setting of an acute STEMI, it is generally avoided because it increases myocardial oxygen consumption by increasing contractility. Excessive oxygen demand during an active infarction can exacerbate myocardial injury and extend the area of necrosis.
C. Aspirin is a cornerstone of acute coronary syndrome management due to its immediate antiplatelet effects. It irreversibly inhibits cyclooxygenase-1, preventing the synthesis of thromboxane A2, which is a potent stimulator of platelet aggregation. Administering aspirin early significantly reduces mortality by limiting the size of the developing thrombus within the obstructed coronary vessel.
D. Morphine is the preferred analgesic for managing the crushing chest pain associated with myocardial infarction when nitrates are insufficient. Beyond pain relief, it provides beneficial hemodynamic effects by reducing preload through venous dilation and decreasing systemic vascular resistance. These actions lower the myocardial workload and oxygen demand, while also alleviating the patient's anxiety and sympathetic surge.
E. Dopamine is a sympathomimetic amine used for hemodynamic support in cases of cardiogenic shock or clinically significant hypotension. The client's blood pressure is currently stable at 126/80 mm Hg, making a vasopressor or potent inotrope unnecessary and potentially harmful. Administering dopamine in a stable STEMI patient would unnecessarily increase heart rate and myocardial metabolic demand, worsening the ischemia.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Digoxin is a cardiac glycosidethat inhibits the sodium-potassium ATPasepump, increasing intracellular calcium and myocardial contractility. It possesses a narrow therapeutic index, making toxic accumulations common. Early toxicity manifests as anorexia, nausea, and blurred or yellow-tinted vision, while severe toxicity causes life-threatening dysrhythmias.
Rationale:
A.Notifying the provider is a necessary step in the management of a medication error, but it is not the initial action. The nurse must first possess objective clinical data regarding the client's current physiological status to provide a comprehensive report. Assessment always precedes notification in the nursing process to ensure the provider can make informed decisions.
B.Obtaining the client's vital signs is the priority action because the nurse must assess for immediate life-threatening complications like severe bradycardia or hypotension. Since digoxin significantly affects cardiac conduction, an overdose can trigger various arrhythmias. Assessing the client's stability provides the essential data needed to determine the urgency of further medical interventions.
C.Initiating a medication error incident report is an administrative requirement that ensures institutional quality improvement and safety tracking. However, documentation is never the first priority when a client's safety is potentially compromised by a pharmacological overdose. The nurse must focus on clinical assessment and stabilization before completing necessary internal paperwork regarding the error.
D.Checking the client's digoxin level is an important diagnostic step to quantify the severity of the overdose, but it takes time to process. Laboratory results do not provide immediate information about the client's current hemodynamic tolerance of the excess dose. The nurse should prioritize the physical assessment of the client over waiting for laboratory confirmation of serum levels.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Hydroxyzine is a first-generation antihistaminethat crosses the blood-brain barrier, leading to significant anticholinergicand sedative effects. In contrast, hydralazine is a peripheral vasodilatorused for hypertension. This look-alike, sound-alike error involves switching a sedative for an antihypertensive, requiring close neurological and cardiovascular monitoring.
Rationale:
A.Sedation is a primary adverse effect of hydroxyzine due to its ability to block H1 receptors in the central nervous system. Because the client received this instead of a blood pressure medication, the nurse must monitor for extreme drowsiness, dizziness, and a possible risk for falls. Sedation is the most immediate and expected neurological consequence of this specific medication error.
B.Drooling is not associated with hydroxyzine; rather, this medication has anticholinergic properties that typically cause dry mouth (xerostomia). Hydroxyzine reduces secretions and blocks parasympathetic activity, making drooling an unlikely finding. If the client experiences drooling, the nurse should investigate other causes, such as neurological impairment or the effect of different pharmacological agents.
C.Diarrhea is not a common side effect of hydroxyzine administration. Antihistamines with anticholinergic effects are more likely to cause constipation due to slowed gastrointestinal motility. The nurse should monitor for decreased bowel sounds rather than increased frequency of stools. Diarrhea would be an atypical response to the mistaken administration of an antihistamine.
D.While hydralazine (the intended drug) treats hypertension, the nurse should monitor for high blood pressure because the client missedtheir antihypertensive dose. However, the prompt asks for the adverse effect of the medication actually given. Hydroxyzine itself does not cause hypertension; instead, the primary risk of the drug actually administered is central nervous system depression and potential hypotension.
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