A nurse is assessing a client who presents with a prodrome of fever, headache, malaise, anorexia, and pharyngitis. The nurse observes a generalized pruritic rash that progresses from macules to papules to vesicles to pustules to crusts, starting on the face and trunk and spreading to the extremities. The number of lesions varies from a few to hundreds. Which of the following complications should the nurse be aware of?
Chronic kidney disease.
Otitis media.
Rheumatoid arthritis.
Type 2 diabetes.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice B rationale:
The symptoms described in the scenario, such as fever, headache, malaise, anorexia, pharyngitis, and the progression of a generalized pruritic rash from macules to papules to vesicles to pustules to crusts, are indicative of varicella-zoster virus (VZV) infection, commonly known as chickenpox. Otitis media (choice B) can be a complication of chickenpox, especially in children.
Choice A rationale:
Chronic kidney disease (choice A) is not a common complication of chickenpox. It is more commonly associated with conditions like diabetes and hypertension.
Choice C rationale:
Rheumatoid arthritis (choice C) is an autoimmune condition and is not a known complication of chickenpox.
Choice D rationale:
Type 2 diabetes (choice D) is not a common complication of chickenpox. Diabetes can increase the risk of infection, but it is not directly related to chickenpox.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
(Incorrect) Shingles, caused by the varicella-zoster virus, can be transmitted through direct contact with the fluid from the vesicles (blisters) of a person who has active shingles. However, it is important for the nurse to provide correct information to the client.
Choice B rationale:
(Correct) Shingles can only occur in individuals who have previously had chickenpox. After a person recovers from chickenpox, the virus remains dormant in the nerve tissues. Later in life, the virus can reactivate, leading to shingles. It is crucial for the nurse to emphasize this point to prevent any misunderstandings.
Choice C rationale:
(Incorrect) While the shingles vaccine is effective in reducing the risk of developing shingles, it does not have a 100% efficacy rate. The vaccine can, however, reduce the severity and duration of the illness if shingles still occur after vaccination.
Choice D rationale:
(Incorrect) The herpes zoster vaccine (shingles vaccine) is not given to children under 10 years old. It is recommended for adults aged 50 years and older or for individuals with certain risk factors.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","D","E"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Encouraging using sterile instruments for cutting umbilical cords is important in preventing tetanus as contaminated instruments can introduce the
C. tetani spores, leading to infection.
Choice B rationale:
Promoting safe delivery practices in clean facilities is crucial to prevent tetanus in newborns. Clean delivery facilities reduce the risk of exposure to
C. tetani spores, which can enter through unclean delivery practices.
Choice C rationale:
Advising against disposing of animal feces properly is not directly related to preventing tetanus. Tetanus is primarily caused by the introduction of
C. tetani spores into wounds, not through exposure to animal feces.
Choice D rationale:
Educating on avoiding contact with soil or feces that may contain
C. tetani spores is essential in preventing tetanus. The spores can be found in soil and feces, and direct contact with these sources increases the risk of infection.
Choice E rationale:
Suggesting regular booster doses of DTP vaccine during adulthood is an effective measure in preventing tetanus. The DTP vaccine provides immunity against tetanus, and regular boosters are recommended to maintain protection throughout life.
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