A nurse is assessing a client who is at 37 weeks of gestation and reports sudden, severe abdominal pain with moderate vaginal bleeding and persistent uterine contractions.
The client's blood pressure is 88/50 mm Hg, and her abdomen is rigid.
The nurse should identify these findings as indicating which of the following complications?
Uterine rupture.
Placental abruption.
Placenta previa.
Amniotic fluid embolus.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Uterine rupture typically presents with intense, constant abdominal pain and signs of shock. However, the absence of visible bleeding in the abdominal cavity makes this choice less likely in this case.
Choice B rationale:
Placental abruption involves the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall before delivery. The sudden, severe abdominal pain, moderate vaginal bleeding, persistent uterine contractions, and signs of hypovolemic shock (low blood pressure, rigid abdomen) are indicative of placental abruption. This condition requires immediate medical intervention due to the risk of fetal and maternal compromise.
Choice C rationale:
Placenta previa occurs when the placenta partially or completely covers the cervical opening. It typically presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. The severe abdominal pain described in the scenario is inconsistent with placenta previa.
Choice D rationale:
Amniotic fluid embolus is a rare and life-threatening condition in which amniotic fluid enters the maternal bloodstream, causing an allergic reaction. It can lead to sudden cardiovascular collapse. Although it can cause respiratory distress and hypotension, it does not usually present with severe abdominal pain or uterine contractions.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
- A is incorrect because massaging bony prominences on the client's left side can increase the risk of skin breakdown and pressure ulcers. The nurse should avoid applying pressure to areas with impaired circulation or sensation.
- B is correct because supporting the client's left arm on a pillow while sitting can prevent edema, contractures, and nerve damage. The nurse should also encourage the client to perform active and passive range of motion exercises on their left arm.
- C is incorrect because positioning the bedside table on the client's left side can discourage the client from using their right side, which can lead to neglect and learned nonuse. The nurse should position the bedside table on the client's right side and encourage them to reach for items with their right hand.
- D is incorrect because placing the client's cane on their left side while ambulating can cause instability and falls. The nurse should place the cane on the client's right side and instruct them to move their left leg and cane together, followed by their right leg.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
- A. Encourage the client to take a cool sponge bath each morning is not correct because it can increase joint stiffness and pain.
- B. Administer opioid analgesia is not correct because it is not the first-line treatment for rheumatoid arthritis and can cause dependence and tolerance.
- C. Increase the client's dietary iron intake is indicate in rheumatoid arthritis due to anemia of chronic inflammation.
- D. Restrict the client's intake of foods high in purines is incorrect in rheumatoid. It is an important measure in gouty arthritis.
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