A nurse is assessing a client who has a heart rate of 40/min. The client is diaphoretic and has chest pain. Which of the following medications should the nurse plan to administer?
Lidocaine
Adenosine
Atropine
Verapamil
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A Reason
Lidocaine is primarily used to treat ventricular arrhythmias, such as ventricular tachycardia or ventricular fibrillation. It is not typically used for bradycardia (a heart rate of 40/min) and would not be appropriate for this scenario.
Choice B Reason
Adenosine is used to treat certain types of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) by slowing down the heart rate. It is not indicated for bradycardia and would not be suitable for a heart rate of 40/min.
Choice C Reason
Atropine is the first-line medication for treating symptomatic bradycardia. It works by blocking the effects of the vagus nerve on the heart, thereby increasing the heart rate. Given the client’s symptoms of a low heart rate, diaphoresis, and chest pain, atropine is the appropriate choice.
Choice D Reason
Verapamil is a calcium channel blocker used to treat high blood pressure, angina, and certain types of arrhythmias. However, it is not used for bradycardia and could potentially worsen the condition by further lowering the heart rate.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason
Maintain strict bed rest. This intervention is not typically recommended for managing Ménière’s disease. While rest during acute vertigo episodes is important, strict bed rest is not necessary and can lead to other complications such as muscle atrophy and decreased mobility.
Choice B Reason
Restrict fluid intake to the morning hours. This statement is incorrect. Fluid intake should be evenly distributed throughout the day to help manage the symptoms of Ménière’s disease. Restricting fluids to the morning hours can lead to dehydration and does not effectively manage the condition.
Choice C Reason
Administer aspirin. This intervention is not recommended for Ménière’s disease. Aspirin can worsen tinnitus, a common symptom of Ménière’s disease, and is generally avoided in these patients.
Choice D Reason
Provide a low-sodium diet. This is the correct intervention. A low-sodium diet helps reduce fluid retention in the body, which can decrease the pressure in the inner ear and help manage the symptoms of Ménière’s disease. Reducing sodium intake to 1,500-2,000 milligrams per day is often recommended.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason
“Your provider will use stool from your digital rectal examination to perform the test.” This statement is incorrect. For fecal occult blood testing, stool samples are typically collected at home using a special kit provided by the healthcare provider. The samples are then sent to a lab for analysis. Using stool from a digital rectal examination is not the standard procedure for FOBT.
Choice B Reason
“Your provider will prescribe a stimulant laxative prior to the procedure to evacuate the bowel.” This statement is incorrect. Stimulant laxatives are not typically prescribed before an FOBT. The test requires a small sample of stool, and using a laxative could interfere with the results. Patients are usually advised to follow specific dietary and medication guidelines to avoid false positives or negatives.
Choice C Reason
“You should begin annual fecal occult blood testing for colorectal cancer screening at 40 years old.” This statement is incorrect. Current guidelines recommend starting colorectal cancer screening, including FOBT, at age 45 for individuals at average risk. Screening may start earlier for those with a higher risk, such as a family history of colorectal cancer.
Choice D Reason
“You should avoid taking corticosteroids prior to testing.” This is the correct statement. Corticosteroids can cause gastrointestinal irritation and bleeding, which may lead to false-positive results in fecal occult blood tests. Therefore, it is important to avoid these medications before testing.
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