A nurse is admitting a client who is at 9 weeks of gestation and in active labor when screened at 6 weeks of gestation.Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Prepare for a cesarean birth.
Administer IV antibiotic prophylaxis.
Obtain a vaginal culture.
Administer metronidazole orally.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
Preparing for a cesarean birth is not an immediate necessity unless there are complications that warrant such intervention. Cesarean births are typically reserved for situations where vaginal delivery poses a risk to the mother or the baby.
Choice B rationale
Administering IV antibiotic prophylaxis is critical in preventing potential infections during the labor process, especially given the early gestation period. This helps in safeguarding both the mother and the fetus from infections like group B streptococcus.
Choice C rationale
Obtaining a vaginal culture is generally done to check for infections such as bacterial vaginosis or sexually transmitted infections. However, it is not an immediate priority when the patient is already in active labor.
Choice D rationale
Administering metronidazole orally is used to treat bacterial infections but is not an immediate action required in this scenario. Metronidazole may not be the most suitable choice during labor as it does not provide immediate infection prevention.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Elevating the head of the client’s bed is not indicated in this situation and does not address the issue of excessive bleeding postpartum.
Choice B rationale
Administering terbutaline, a medication used to manage preterm labor, is not relevant in the context of postpartum hemorrhage and excessive bleeding.
Choice C rationale
Initiating oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula may help with oxygenation but does not address the primary issue of excessive postpartum bleeding.
Choice D rationale
Initiating an infusion of oxytocin is the correct action as it helps contract the uterus and reduce postpartum bleeding, making it a crucial step in managing this situation.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Cesarean birth is not necessarily required for GBS-positive clients as long as IV antibiotic prophylaxis is administered during labor to prevent transmission to the newborn.
Choice B rationale
IV antibiotic prophylaxis, typically with penicillin or ampicillin, is given to GBS-positive clients during labor to prevent neonatal GBS infection.
Choice C rationale
Obtaining a vaginal culture at 39 weeks of gestation is not necessary if the client was already screened and found positive for GBS at 36 weeks.
Choice D rationale
Metronidazole is used to treat bacterial vaginosis or trichomoniasis, not GBS infection; thus, it is not appropriate for this scenario. .
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