A nurse is administering intravenous phenytoin to a client who is experiencing status epilepticus. The nurse observes that the client's hand becomes swollen and purple after the injection. What is the most likely explanation for this finding?

This means that the drug has leaked out of the vein and into the surrounding tissue, causing inflammation, pain, and tissue damage⁵⁶. Phenytoin is a known vesicant, which means it can cause severe skin reactions when extravasated⁵. The clinical manifestation of phenytoin extravasation is called purple glove syndrome (PGS), which is characterized by a purplish to black discoloration of the extremity followed by peripheral edema and pain distal to the site of infusion¹².

Choice A is wrong because the client is not having an allergic reaction to phenytoin. An allergic reaction would cause symptoms such as rash, itching, hives, swelling of the face or throat, difficulty breathing, or anaphylaxis⁷. The client's symptoms are localized to the hand and are consistent with extravasation, not allergy.

Choice B is wrong because the client is not developing purple glove syndrome. Purple glove syndrome is the name of the condition caused by phenytoin extravasation, not a separate entity¹². The client already has purple glove syndrome as a result of the extravasation.

Choice D is wrong because the client is not developing thrombophlebitis. Thrombophlebitis is inflammation of a vein caused by a blood clot, usually in the legs⁸⁹. Thrombophlebitis can cause symptoms such as

This statement indicates a need for further teaching because phenytoin and phenobarbital are not effective for treating absence seizures, which are a type of generalized onset seizure that cause brief lapses in awareness, such as blank staring¹. Phenytoin and phenobarbital are narrow-spectrum anticonvulsants that are mainly used for focal seizures, which begin in one area of the brain². Taking these medications for absence seizures may worsen the condition or cause adverse effects.

The other statements are correct and do not indicate a need for further teaching.

Choice A is correct because carbamazepine and valproic acid are both effective for treating partial seizures, which are a type of focal seizure that may or may not affect awareness².

Choice B is correct because phenobarbital and lamotrigine are both effective for treating generalized tonic-clonic seizures, which are a type of generalized onset seizure that cause muscle stiffness and jerking movements².

Choice D is correct because valproic acid and levetiracetam are both effective for treating myoclonic seizures, which are a type of generalized onset seizure that cause brief jerking movements². Choice E is correct because lamotrigine and topiramate are both effective for treating atonic seizures, which are a type of generalized onset seizure that cause sudden loss of muscle tone².