A large tree fell across the thighs of a man who works as a logger, producing a crushing injury. The muddy ground cushioned the impact and x-rays revealed no broken bones. His thighs are bruised and swollen with pedal pulses present, but the left is stronger than the right. It is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care assessment for signs of which pathophysiological condition?

Peripheral neuropathy.

Osteomyelitis.

Fat embolism.

Compartment syndrome.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A) Peripheral neuropathy:

Peripheral neuropathy involves damage to the peripheral nerves and is not directly related to the described crushing injury. While nerve injury can occur as a result of trauma, the signs and symptoms described in the scenario, such as unequal strength between the left and right thighs, are more indicative of a potential vascular or musculoskeletal issue rather than peripheral neuropathy.

B) Osteomyelitis:

Osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can occur secondary to trauma or as a complication of open fractures. While it is possible for a crushing injury to lead to osteomyelitis if there is bone involvement or an open wound, the scenario mentions that x-rays revealed no broken bones. Additionally, the signs and symptoms described, such as bruising and swelling of the thighs, are not specific to osteomyelitis.

C) Fat embolism:

Fat embolism occurs when fat globules enter the bloodstream, often following traumatic injury to long bones or orthopedic procedures. While a crushing injury can theoretically lead to fat embolism, the absence of long bone fractures in the x-rays makes this less likely. Additionally, fat embolism typically presents with respiratory symptoms such as dyspnea and hypoxemia, which are not described in the scenario.

D) Compartment syndrome:

Correct. Compartment syndrome is a serious condition that can occur following a crushing injury, especially in the extremities. It is characterized by increased pressure within a muscle compartment, leading to compromised blood flow and potential tissue damage. Signs and symptoms of compartment syndrome include severe pain, swelling, bruising, decreased or absent pulses, and neurological deficits. The unequal strength between the left and right thighs could indicate neurological deficits due to compromised blood flow or nerve compression, making assessment for signs of compartment syndrome crucial in this client's plan of care. If compartment syndrome is suspected, prompt medical intervention, such as fasciotomy to relieve pressure, may be necessary to prevent complications.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Chronic osteoarthritis (OA) is a degenerative joint disease characterized by the breakdown of joint cartilage and underlying bone changes. The pathophysiological process of OA involves various factors contributing to joint pain and inflammation. Here's why option C is the correct choice:

A) Inflammation results from deposition of crystals in the synovial space of joints producing irritation:

This statement is more characteristic of crystal-induced arthritis, such as gout or pseudogout, where crystals (e.g., urate or calcium pyrophosphate crystals) deposit in the joints and cause acute inflammation and irritation. While inflammation may occur in OA, it is primarily a result of mechanical stress and cartilage degradation rather than crystal deposition.

B) Inflammation is caused by immune complex and autoantibody deposition in connective tissue:

This statement is more characteristic of autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis (RA), where immune complex deposition and autoantibody production lead to chronic inflammation and joint damage. In OA, inflammation is not primarily mediated by immune complex deposition or autoantibodies.

C) Joint inflammation occurs when chondrocyte injury destroys joint cartilage, producing osteophytes:

Correct. In osteoarthritis, joint inflammation occurs as a result of chondrocyte injury and cartilage breakdown. Over time, the degenerative changes in the joint lead to the formation of osteophytes (bone spurs) at the joint margins. These changes can irritate surrounding tissues, including the synovium, ligaments, and tendons, contributing to joint pain and inflammation.

D) Joint destruction happens due to an autoimmune inflammation involving IgG response to an antigen:

This statement is more characteristic of autoimmune arthritis, such as rheumatoid arthritis (RA), where autoantibodies (e.g., rheumatoid factor, anti-citrullinated protein antibodies) target joint tissues, leading to chronic inflammation and joint destruction. In OA, joint destruction primarily results from mechanical stress and wear-and-tear on the joint structures rather than autoimmune mechanisms.

A. Hyposecretion of Antidiuretic hormone (ADH). B. Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH). C. Hypopituitarism. D. Septic shock.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

The clinical manifestations described in the scenario, including lethargy, difficulty talking, hypertension (blood pressure of 146/122 mm Hg), and elevated urine specific gravity (1.055), are indicative of Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH). Here's a breakdown of the rationale:

A) Hyposecretion of Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH):

Hyposecretion of ADH would result in decreased levels of ADH, leading to increased urine output (polyuria) and low urine specific gravity. This condition is known as diabetes insipidus, characterized by excessive thirst and dilute urine. The elevated urine specific gravity in the scenario is inconsistent with diabetes insipidus. Therefore, this option is incorrect.

B) Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone (SIADH):

Correct. SIADH is a condition characterized by excessive release of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) from the posterior pituitary gland, leading to water retention, dilutional hyponatremia, and concentrated urine. The elevated urine specific gravity (1.055) in the scenario indicates concentrated urine, consistent with SIADH. Additionally, lethargy and difficulty talking are common neurological manifestations of hyponatremia, which can occur as a result of water retention in SIADH. The client's hypertension is likely a compensatory response to hyponatremia-induced cerebral edema. Therefore, SIADH is the most likely diagnosis in this context.

C) Hypopituitarism:

Hypopituitarism refers to deficient production of one or more pituitary hormones, which can lead to a variety of endocrine abnormalities depending on which hormones are affected. While it is possible for hypopituitarism to cause hyponatremia, the other clinical manifestations described in the scenario are not typically associated with this condition. Additionally, the elevated urine specific gravity is not consistent with hypopituitarism-induced hyponatremia. Therefore, this option is less likely.

D) Septic shock:

Septic shock is a life-threatening condition characterized by severe hypotension and tissue hypoperfusion due to systemic infection. While septic shock can cause altered mental status, hypotension (not hypertension), and oliguria (not concentrated urine), it is not typically associated with elevated urine specific gravity. Therefore, septic shock is not the most likely diagnosis in this context.

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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client with chronic osteoarthritis is troubled by knee pain. Which pathophysiological process is contributing to the pain?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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