A laboring woman asks for IV pain medication. Which of the following patients would be a candidate for IV pain medication in labor? (Select all that apply)
A G3 P2 laboring patient with a current vaginal exam of 8/100%/0.
A G1 P0 laboring patient with a Category 1 strip and a current vaginal exam of 4/80 %/-1.
A G1 P0 laboring patient with the FHT showing no variability and late decelerations.
A G1 P0 laboring patient who has a vaginal exam of 5/100%/0 and contractions every 4 minutes. FHT's are 135 with moderate variability and no decelerations present
Fertilization
Blastosis
Correct Answer : B,D
A. A G3 P2 laboring patient with a current vaginal exam of 8/100%/0: This patient is in advanced labor (transition phase) and IV pain medication is typically avoided due to the proximity to delivery, which could affect the newborn.
B. A G1 P0 laboring patient with a Category 1 strip and a current vaginal exam of 4/80%/-1: This patient is in active labor with normal fetal heart tracing, making her a suitable candidate for IV pain medication.
C. A G1 P0 laboring patient with the FHT showing no variability and late decelerations: This patient has non-reassuring fetal heart tracings, indicating potential fetal distress, making IV pain medication inappropriate as it could further compromise the fetus.
D. A G1 P0 laboring patient who has a vaginal exam of 5/100%/0 and contractions every 4 minutes: This patient is also in active labor with normal fetal heart tracings, making her a suitable candidate for IV pain medication.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. External version is not recommended in cases of placenta previa as it can cause hemorrhage or placenta separation.
B. External version is typically not performed in placenta previa because of the risk of bleeding or placental separation.
C. A breech presentation combined with placenta previa is a contraindication for external version, as attempting the version could cause severe complications.
D. The presence of a breech presentation, in this case, is not the primary reason for the inability to perform an external version. The main concern is placenta previa.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Scarring or malformation of the fallopian tube increases the risk of an ectopic pregnancy. This condition can prevent the fertilized egg from traveling properly to the uterus, leading to implantation in the fallopian tube.
B. Urinary tract infections are not directly related to malformation or scarring of the fallopian tubes.
C. Decreased estrogen levels are not directly caused by fallopian tube scarring.
D. Early menopause is unrelated to fallopian tube scarring, which typically affects fertility but not directly menopause onset.
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