A client is prescribed 8mg of ondansetron IV to manage the side effects of chemotherapy, specifically nausea and vomiting. When is the optimal time for the nurse to administer this medication?
When the client feels nauseous or vomits
Immediately after the chemotherapy is complete
30 minutes prior to starting the chemotherapy
When the client requests the ondansetron
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale
Administering ondansetron when the client feels nauseous or vomits is not the most effective use of the medication. The goal is to prevent nausea and vomiting from occurring in the first place.
Choice B rationale
Administering ondansetron immediately after chemotherapy is complete may not provide the most effective prevention of nausea and vomiting. The medication needs time to work and should ideally be administered before chemotherapy begins.
Choice C rationale
The optimal time to administer ondansetron is 30 minutes prior to starting chemotherapy. This allows the medication to start working before the chemotherapy drugs that cause nausea and vomiting are administered.
Choice D rationale
While it’s important to respond to a client’s requests, waiting until the client requests the ondansetron may not prevent the onset of nausea and vomiting. It’s more effective to administer the medication proactively.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While a blood culture could be useful in diagnosing a systemic infection, it would not be the most appropriate intervention for a patient reporting watery diarrhea and abdominal cramps after 2 weeks of antibiotic therapy.
Choice B rationale
A stool sample should be collected to test for Clostridium difficile. This bacterium can overgrow in the gut during antibiotic therapy, leading to symptoms such as watery diarrhea and abdominal cramps.
Choice C rationale
Discontinuing the antibiotic immediately may not be the best course of action without confirming the cause of the symptoms.
Choice D rationale
Prescribing an antidiarrheal could alleviate discomfort, but it would not address the underlying cause of the symptoms.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
While a fasting blood sugar level of 130 mg/dL is slightly elevated, it is not the most concerning finding given the current medications. Metformin is a medication used to control blood sugar levels in patients with diabetes, so this patient’s blood sugar is being managed.
Choice B rationale
Yellow discoloration of the sclera is a sign of jaundice, which can indicate liver damage. Given that this patient is taking several medications that can potentially cause liver damage (including isoniazid and acetaminophen), this finding is most concerning.
Choice C rationale
A positive result on the tuberculin skin test indicates exposure to tuberculosis, but it does not necessarily mean the patient has active tuberculosis. The patient is currently taking medications for tuberculosis (isoniazid and rifampin), indicating that this condition is being managed.
Choice D rationale
A blood pressure reading of 100/70 mmHg is within the normal range, so this would not be the most concerning finding. The patient’s metoprolol medication is used to manage blood pressure, indicating that this aspect of the patient’s health is being managed. Prednisone Prednisone Explore
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