A client at 10 weeks gestation provides the following obstetric history to the nurse at the first prenatal visit: elective abortion at age 17, a 5-year-old daughter born at 40 weeks gestation, and 3-year-old twin boys born at 34 weeks gestation.
Using GTPAL notation, which documentation appropriately describes the client's obstetric history?
G3, T1, P2, A1, L3.
G4, T1, P2, A1, L3.
G3, T1, P1, A1, L3.
G4, T1, P1, A1, L3.
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale
This notation indicates three pregnancies (G3), one term birth (T1), two preterm births (P2), one abortion (A1), and three living children (L3). While the number of living children is correct, the total number of pregnancies is underestimated by excluding the current pregnancy.
Choice B rationale
This notation accurately reflects four pregnancies (G4: the elective abortion, the daughter, the twins, and the current pregnancy), one term birth (T1: the daughter born at 40 weeks), two preterm births (P2: the twin boys born at 34 weeks), one abortion (A1: the elective abortion), and three living children (L3: the daughter and the twin boys).
Choice C rationale
This notation indicates three pregnancies (G3), one term birth (T1), one preterm birth (P1), one abortion (A1), and three living children (L3). The number of preterm births is incorrect, as there were two preterm births (the twins).
Choice D rationale
This notation indicates four pregnancies (G4), one term birth (T1), one preterm birth (P1), one abortion (A1), and three living children (L3). The number of preterm births is incorrect, as there were two preterm births (the twins).
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale
Nausea and vomiting are common discomforts of pregnancy, particularly in the first trimester. While they can be distressing, they are not typically indicative of an immediate life-threatening condition for the mother or fetus at 14 weeks gestation. Hyperemesis gravidarum, a more severe form, would warrant closer attention, but the description here is general.
Choice B rationale
Painless vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester (28 weeks gestation) is a concerning sign and could indicate placenta previa or placental abruption, both of which can lead to significant maternal and fetal hemorrhage and compromise fetal oxygenation. This client requires immediate assessment to determine the cause and ensure prompt intervention if necessary.
Choice C rationale
A cough and fever at 38 weeks gestation could indicate an infection, such as influenza or pneumonia. While these conditions can be serious for a near-term pregnant woman and potentially affect the fetus, they are generally less immediately life-threatening than significant vaginal bleeding in the second or third trimester and would be addressed after the client with potential placental issues.
Choice D rationale
Missed period and vaginal spotting can be early signs of pregnancy or a threatened abortion. While it warrants investigation, it is generally not an immediate emergency requiring triage before a client with painless vaginal bleeding at 28 weeks gestation, which carries a higher risk of acute complications.
Correct Answer is {"A":{"answers":"A,B"},"B":{"answers":"B"},"C":{"answers":"B,C"},"D":{"answers":"C"},"E":{"answers":"B"},"F":{"answers":"A,B,C"}}
Explanation
- Postpartum Endometritis is the most likely concern here, considering the fever, foul-smelling lochia, uterine tenderness, and tachycardia.
- Postpartum Hemorrhage is a possibility due to the boggy uterus and tachycardia, though her bleeding appears moderate.
- Lactational Mastitis is unlikely since the patient has no breast tenderness or redness.
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