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HESI Biology Practice Test
The HESI Biology practice test is an important resource that helps aspiring nurses prepare for their actual HESI Biology test. The practice test allows the test takers to be familiar with the test format and the question types they will encounter. It also helps them identify the areas they will have to improve. When you use the Naxlex HESI Biology practice test, candidates will be in a better position to understand the type of biology questions they will tackle during their exams. It will also help make them more comfortable with their abilities.
There are different types of HESI biology practice test questions. There are subject-specific and full-length practice tests. The full-length biology practice test questions are more comprehensive and offer a realistic simulation of the actual HESI Biology test. However, all these question types have their benefits and will help you prepare well for the exams . You should set aside a specific study time to ensure proper use of the HESI Biology practice test kit. They should strive to answer as many questions as possible.
When you are through with answering the HESI Biology practice test questions, you can review the answers and point out areas where you might have made mistakes. With this, you can point out places where you should put more emphasis on your studies. Test takers preparing for their HESI Biology test must take the HESI Biology practice test under similar conditions. They will take the actual exam and use the same time and quiet environment as they will in the Test. Online quizzes and flashcards offer a great way to practice Biology concepts and help improve your knowledge of biology. The online quizzes will allow test takers to practice particular Biology topics in different formats. The flashcards will help ensure the proper practice of other Biology concepts quickly and easily.
How Many Questions Are on HESI Biology Test?
The biology subtest comprises 30 multiple-choice questions. Five questions are always used for evaluation in future tests and never count towards or against the score. It is difficult for exam takers to identify the scored and the non-scored questions. Four possible answers always follow every question. You have to choose the right answer to receive question credits. Every question will always have one correct answer.You will have to answer all the questions within 25 minutes.
You will have approximately 50 seconds to spend on every question. It means you must pay attention to how much time you spend on every question. When a question seems quite complex, consider making the best guess and proceed to the next question. You can always return to your unsure questions and try redoing them.
What is on HESI Biology Exam?
The HESI Biology exam tests your general knowledge of biology. Some of the topics you will encounter include
Biology Basics
They will test your understanding of gradualism, scientific methods, kingdom classification systems, natural selection, and evolution.
Water
Questions about water will ask you to demonstrate your knowledge of different water properties like adhesion, heat, solvency, and cohesion
Biologic Molecules
Some questions will test your understanding of reactions such as catabolic and anabolic, the four basic building blocks, and the four basic macromolecules.
Metabolism
These questions will prompt you to demonstrate your understanding of metabolism.
The Cell
Here, you will be asked to demonstrate your knowledge of the structure and function of cells. Specific understanding of chromosomes, nuclei, nuclear pores, cytoplasm, ribosomes, cell membranes, and related concepts.
Cellular Respiration
The common topics you will be tested on are metabolic reactions within the cell, oxidation, Krebs cycle, glycolysis, respiration, and chemiosmosis. You will also be tested on genetics, DNA, cellular reproduction, and photosynthesis.
Questions on HESI Biology Practice Test
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The ABCD rule is a mnemonic used to identify the characteristics of melanoma, which is a type of skin cancer. The leters stand for:
A -Asymmetry: One half of the mole or lesion does not match the other half.
B - Border irregularity: The edges are ragged, notched, or blurred.
C - Color: The color is not uniform and may include different shades of brown or black, or sometimes patches of pink, red, white, or blue.
D - Diameter: The size of the mole or lesion is greater than 6 mm (about the size of a pencil eraser), although melanomas can sometimes be smaller.
This rule is not as useful in detecting other types of skin cancer, such as squamous cell carcinoma, basal cell carcinoma, or sarcoma, as they tend to have different characteristics. However, any new or changing mole or lesion on the skin should be examined by a dermatologist to determine if it is cancerous.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Hematoma formation occurs immediately after the bone is fractured. The blood vessels that have been damaged due to the fracture bleed and form a hematoma or a blood clot.
Next, callus formation begins, which involves the accumulation of fibrous tissue, cartilage, and new bone cells around the fracture site, forming a soft callus.
The soft callus then undergoes callus ossification, in which the fibrous tissue and cartilage are gradually replaced by hardened new bone tissue.
Finally, bone remodeling occurs, which involves the reshaping of the newly formed bone tissue to match the shape of the original bone, and the removal of any excess bone material.
Therefore, option b, hematoma formation, Callus formation, Callus ossification, Bone remodeling, is the correct sequence of repair as a fractured bone goes through the healing process.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Blood then carry them to target cells or organs throughout the body. Hormones are chemical messengers that help to regulate various physiological processes such as growth, metabolism, and reproduction. Unlike exocrine glands (option a), which secrete their products into ducts that carry them to external surfaces such as the skin or digestive tract, endocrine glands have no ducts and release their secretions directly into the circulatory system. Salivary glands (option d) are exocrine glands that secrete saliva into ducts leading to the mouth. Option b is also incorrect as it does not accurately describe endocrine glands.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Also known as platelets, are cell fragments in the blood that play a crucial role in blood clotting or coagulation. When a blood vessel is injured, thrombocytes are activated and clump together to form a platelet plug that stops the bleeding. They also release substances that promote blood clotting and help to repair the damaged blood vessel. Therefore, the function of thrombocytes is important in preventing excessive bleeding and promoting wound healing. Options a, c, and d are incorrect because they do not describe the function of thrombocytes.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The left ventricle of the heart normally has the thickest wall, which is composed mainly of cardiac muscle tissue (myocardium). The left ventricle has to generate enough force to pump oxygen-rich blood to the rest of the body through systemic circulation, which requires greater muscular effort than the right ventricle, which pumps blood only to the lungs via pulmonary circulation. The thickness of the left ventricular wall ensures that it can withstand the pressure required to generate this forceful contraction.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
After birth, blood is primarily produced in the red bone marrow of the infant. Red bone marrow is a spongy tissue found in the hollow centers of certain bones, such as the skull, ribs, pelvis, and long bones of the arms and legs. Red bone marrow is responsible for producing red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.
In adults, some of the blood production shifts to other organs such as the spleen and liver. However, in infants, the red bone marrow is the main site of blood cell production until about 5 years of age when it begins to gradually transition to the other organs.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The xiphoid process is a small, cartilaginous extension located at the inferior end of the sternum (breastbone), which serves as an attachment site for certain abdominal muscles. The hyoid bone is a U- shaped bone located in the neck, not on the sternum. The ossa coxae are also known as the hip bones, which are in the pelvic region, not on the sternum. Sesamoid bones are small, rounded bones that are embedded within tendons and can be found in various locations throughout the body, but not necessarily on the sternum.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
When the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated, it activates the "fight or flight" response, which prepares the body for physical activity or stressful situations. This response includes several physiological changes, such as:
Increased heart rate and cardiac output: The sympathetic nervous system releases adrenaline and noradrenaline, which increase heart rate and cardiac output to provide more oxygen and nutrients to the muscles.
Decreased uterine activity: The sympathetic nervous system inhibits uterine contractions to prevent
premature labor.
Decreased pancreatic activity: The sympathetic nervous system inhibits insulin secretion and promotes glucagon secretion to increase blood glucose levels.
Decreased gastrointestinal activity: The sympathetic nervous system inhibits digestive functions to divert blood flow to the muscles.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The urethra is a tube that connects the bladder to the external environment and serves as a passageway for urine to exit the body during urination. In males, the urethra also serves as a passageway for semen to exit the body during ejaculation, making it a part of both the male reproductive system and the urinary system.
The other options listed are:
a. Ureter - a tube that connects the kidney to the bladder and is a part of the urinary system
c. Testes - the male reproductive organs that produce sperm and are a part of the male reproductive system
d. Epididymis - a tube that connects the testes to the vas deferens and is a part of the male reproductive system.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Eating large amounts of turnips and beets can lead to a condition called beeturia, which causes the urine and skin to turn a reddish or purplish color. This condition is harmless and is caused by the betalain pigments present in these vegetables. As a strict vegetarian, it is possible that the client consumes large amounts of these vegetables, which could explain the unusual skin color.
Rice and eggs, carrots and squash, spinach and mustard greens are not known to cause unusual skin color. However, it is important for the nurse to ask the client about her diet and any supplements she may be taking to beter understand the cause of the unusual skin color.